Recent content by tigger 2

.................................................. It must be 'a god' in John 1:1c. My personal studies on my blog: Examining the Trinity Logos (The 'Word')

................................................. 'Sharp's Rule' Primer (part 1) In an attempt to prove the trinity doctrine, Granville Sharp made up a rule in 1798. It is often called "Sharp's Rule" by trinitarians. It says, in effect, that when two or more words (nouns) in the original Greek...

....................................................... The Leeser Bible translates it: “Wonderful, counsellor of the mighty God, of the everlasting Father, the prince of peace” Also, An American Translation (by trinitarians Smith and Goodspeed) says: "Wonderful counselor is God almighty...

Luke 23:43 - Punctuation Just because a modern text writer decides where he wants the punctuation and capitalization to be in his interpretation of the original text (as Westcott and Hort did for the text that is used by the NWT and Nestle did in the text used by the NASB, etc.) does not mean...

.............................................. Yes, as John prayed to the Father in John 17:3: "Now this is eternal life, that they should know you, the only true God, and the one whom you sent, Jesus Christ." - NAB. It seems so strange that the most important first step in Christianity (the...

Reply to post #300: Just because most translators are trinitarians and naturally prefer this translation does not mean that it is the only honest translation. See my study of this truth: Hebrews 1:8 - “Thy Throne, O God”

MYGOD

I don't deny that some nouns without the definite article will not be translated as indefinite. The real point is that in examining John 1:1c we have a nominative case noun (theos in this case). This case (with a few known exceptions) will be translated with "a/an" when used as it is in John...

............................................ If you really have any interest in Koine Greek as evidence concerning John 1:1c, you would take the time needed to CAREFULLY examine my personal many-years study of this. You have ignored many important points which even many trinitarian scholars...

I think you mistook the citation for your title. Shouldn't it be john 20:17?

........................................ http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com/2009/10/mygod.html http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com/2016/04/all-uses-of-vocative-noun-of-address.html

................................................ 1 Tim. 3:16 (“God [?] was manifest in the flesh”) As this is translated in the KJV it makes Paul say that Jesus is God “manifest in the flesh.” Although the KJV translates 1 Tim. 3:16 with “God” as above, nearly all other translations today use...

I wonder if I replied with an answer to this thread if I wouldn't be hammered by the rulemasters here..

The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology says of some of the NT uses of the preposition ἐν (“in”) specifically as found in the phrase “in Christ” (ἐν Χριστῷ): (a) Incorporative union: .... “those who are in union with Christ Jesus” (Ro. 8:1).... (b) Sphere of reference: “I...