FWIW…I will address some of your scriptural points regardless of your protestations….you can close your heart and mind but we will all eventually face the same judge…and he will determine who are “sheep” and who are “goats”…..(Matt 7:21-23) In a world ruled by the deceiver…nothing is as it appears. (1 John 5:19)
You translate my words about as accurately as your olde English Bible….
Your watchtower source is flawed.
jn 1
18 No man hath seen God at any time, the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.
jn 1
1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God
2 The same was in the beginning with God.
3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
heb 1
5 For unto which of the angels said he at any time, Thou art my Son, this day have I begotten thee
(watchtower says Jesus is an angel)
5 ....when he bringeth in the firstbegotten into the world, he saith, And let all the angels of God worship him.
8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.
Thomas called him God and worshipped him in johns gospel
heb 3
4 For every house is builded by some man; but he that built all things is God.
Internet yelling is a sign of desperation…you really can highlight portions of Scripture without looking like a fanatic….can you not discuss things rationally?
Every one of those verses has a meaning that is conveyed in the rest of the Bible which does not contradict itself….if you look these up in an Interlinear with a good concordance, you will see the errors….or perhaps you don’t want to see….that is not my call.
Here we go….
1)
John 1:18…..
Now we are going to run into which scholars are correct in their translation….I am not a fan of the KJV because of the fact that it contains so many errors, which I found during my Bible study….comparing different translations. Everything the Bible teaches is backed up by other scripture “rightly divided”…..errors produce other errors.
What is this verse saying about God and his son that agrees with the rest of Scripture?
“No man has seen God at any time“…..read it again….and tell me how many people saw Jesus, whom you say is God?
Some translation omit “only begotten SON“ in that verse because in the original Greek it says “monogenes theos” (which is “only begotten god” in Greek) The word “son” is not in that verse but most trinitarians translations don’t seem to care, they just put it in there because it supports their trinity…even the revised NSAB sold out on that one.…and it means that they don’t have to explain how “God” can be “begotten”.
The term “monogenes” is used elsewhere in the Bible to define an ”only child”…it is not an exclusive term for Jesus as if it means something else. So according to Strongs, Jesus can be by definition “theos”…. “divine” or “god-like” without being “deity” which would make him “ho theos”…..he is never once addressed with the definite article as was required when he and his Father are mentioned together in the same passage.
Which leads us to the most widely used “proof text” for the deity of Christ…
2)
John 1:1.
Again, read in Greek, it does not say what is translated into English. Look it up in an Interlinear and you will see the omission of the definite article even though it is there in plain sight…..
“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, (ho theos) and the Word was God.(theos)”
It is saying that Jesus was “the Word” and that he was “with God”….so how can you be “with” someone and at the same time BE that someone? It is completely illogical.
Calling Jesus “theos” (god) but not “ho theos” (THE God) is declaring his “divinity” as “the son of God”, not his deity as God himself. He never once said he was God.
Verses 2-3
“He was in the beginning with God.
All things came into being through Him, and apart from Him nothing came into being that has come into being.”
These also affirm that the Word was “with God” “in the beginning”….so we have to ask what “beginning” is this? The eternal God had no beginning……so it must be speaking about “the beginning of creation” the “firstborn son” was his first creation. (Rev 3:14)……and all creation came into existence “through” the son, not “from“ him. (Col 1:15-17)
Do you understand agency? The son facilitated creation by the will and power of his God and Father. He was the “master workman” at his Father’s side and under his direction. (Prov 8:30-32) He is the “us” and “our” in Gen 1:26.
If someone does something “through” an agency, we get the picture, don’t we? This is how the son can be “with” his Father, but is not his Father, though like him in all respects…..the very image of him in physical form.
Verse 14 says that it was “the Word” who “became flesh“….not “ho theos”. (God)
3)
Hebrews 1:6…
“And when He again brings the firstborn into the world, He says,
“AND LET ALL THE ANGELS OF GOD WORSHIP HIM.”
Lets give this some context…..how does the letter to the Hebrews begin…?
1-4….
“God, after He spoke long ago to the fathers in the prophets in many portions and in many ways, in these last days has spoken to us in His Son, whom He appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the world. And He is the radiance of His glory and the exact representation of His nature, and upholds all things by the word of His power. When He had made purification of sins, He sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high, having become as much better than the angels, as He has inherited a more excellent name than they.“ (NASB)
In reading that we get a different picture to the one verse you quoted…..context changes everything. We must take all scripture in context. Jesus is “heir of all things” if he is God, how does that make sense? The one who gives the inheritance cannot be the one inheriting it.
When he had accomplished his mission what did the son do? He “sat down at the right hand of majesty, having become much better than the angels“….what???
And “he has inherited a more excellent name than they”….? Again what???
Are you reading what I am reading?
So now we need to understand what those angels were doing to Jesus…..was it “worship” or was it “obeisance”……it’s the same word, but only “worship” when it is applied to God the Father.
No one was to worship the son……as Jesus told the devil upon temptation…..
Luke 4:5-8…quoting Deuteronomy 20:10…..
“Jesus replied to him, “It is written: ‘It is the LORD your God you must worship, and it is to him alone you must render sacred service.’” “
The LORD God” to Jews was Yahweh/Jehovah. They had no other God…and neither did Jesus.
There is so much more but why bother…..only those who have their eyes open will see the truth….
Find your excuses, but the truth will be undeniable soon….God will show us all whether our beliefs were well founded upon his word……or not…..there will be no second chances, just as it was in Noah’s day…..(Matt 24:37-39) We are showing God right now, who we really are.