Wrangler
Well-Known Member
That primarily because he is not. Jesus is a person. Words are not people. John 1:1 does not even invoke Jesus.You are denying that Jesus was the Word.
It took me a long time to grasp why trinitarians even make this assertion. And the proof text is 20:31 where John is kind enough to state his purpose in writing his Gospel. Wouldn’t you know it, he didn’t say anything about proving a multi-purpose God OR that believing it is a condition of salvation. Why do you suppose that is?
Consider the possibility of your reading into what the text does not say. Words are WHAT’s not WHO’s.