Jesus is Jehovah the YHWH of the Old Testament

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Grailhunter

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:fearscream: You mean we can be certain based on certain transliterations.

No, it is complicated, but Hebrew is not a dead language. At one time there was a lot of Jews that could not read Hebrew, but the language never really died. People forget that there is a difference between reading and speaking a language. They and we know the basic characteristics of their alphabet.
 

MonoBiblical

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No, it is complicated, but Hebrew is not a dead language. At one time there was a lot of Jews that could not read Hebrew, but the language never really died. People forget that there is a difference between reading and speaking a language. They and we know the basic characteristics of their alphabet.
The original Aramaic syntax is dead.
 

Peterlag

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Jehovah is the Hebrew name for God in the Old Testament. He is given as the Creator of the universe and everything in it. The name Yahweh comes from the Hebrew word for "I am," which was translated as 'Jehovah.' Whenever the name 'LORD' is printed in small caps in the Bible, it means 'YAHWEH'. For ancient Jews, the name 'YAHWEH' was so sacred that they would not speak it nor would they write it in full, but gave it as 'YHWH'.

Now the scriptures is very clear that Jesus Christ is not just our Savior, but is also the Creator of the universe, Jehovah 'YAHWEH' of the Old Testament. Notice carefully:

All things were made by Him, and without Him was not anything made that has been made. John 1:3

He [Jesus] was in the world, and the world was made by Him, and the world knew Him not. John 1:10

God, who created all things by Jesus Christ. Ephesians 3:9

For by Him [Jesus] all things were created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All things were created through Him and for Him. Colossians 1:16

Thus Jesus Christ is our Creator. The One who created, rested. Thus the Sabbath commandment, when correctly understood in the light of both the Old and New Testaments, points to Jesus Christ

Now some may say but God the great Jehovah created the earth in the beginning, but here is were the mystery of the GodHead has to be understood in order to understand who Jesus was.

Jesus is the Jehovah of ALL the Bible. He is the LORD Jehovah that walked in the cool of the day in Eden. Jesus was the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Jesus was Jehovah God who gave the Ten Commandments. Jesus was Jehovah God who was in the pillar of fire by night and cloud by day. Jesus was Jehovah God who appeared to Moses in the fiery bush and declared I am that I am.

What Jesus claims about Himself - John 8:48-59
48 Then answered the Jews, and said unto him, Say we not well that thou art a Samaritan, and hast a devil?
49 Jesus answered, I have not a devil; but I honour my Father, and ye do dishonour me.
50 And I seek not mine own glory: there is one that seeketh and judgeth.
51 Verily, verily, I say unto you, If a man keep my saying, he shall never see death.
52 Then said the Jews unto him, Now we know that thou hast a devil. Abraham is dead, and the prophets; and thou sayest, If a man keep my saying, he shall never taste of death.
53 Art thou greater than our father Abraham, which is dead? and the prophets are dead: whom makest thou thyself?
54 Jesus answered, If I honour myself, my honour is nothing: it is my Father that honoureth me; of whom ye say, that he is your God:
55 Yet ye have not known him; but I know him: and if I should say, I know him not, I shall be a liar like unto you: but I know him, and keep his saying.
56 Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad.
57 Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham?
58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.
59 Then took they up stones to cast at him: but Jesus hid himself, and went out of the temple, going through the midst of them, and so passed by.

With solemn dignity Jesus answered, "Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I AM. Silence fell upon the vast assembly. The name of God, given to Moses to express the idea of the eternal presence, had been claimed as His own by Jesus.

Lets look at this story of Moses and the burning bush in Exodus...
Exodus 3:14-15..
14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you. 15 And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, The LORD God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, hath sent me unto you: this is my name for ever, and this is my memorial unto all generations.

Now scripture shows us even more clearly who Christ is, if we just let the Holy Spirit guide us into truth.

THE FIRST AND THE LAST
Revelation 1:11 Saying, I am Alpha and Omega, the first and the last: and, What thou seest, write in a book, and send it unto the seven churches which are in Asia; unto Ephesus, and unto Smyrna, and unto Pergamos, and unto Thyatira, and unto Sardis, and unto Philadelphia, and unto Laodicea.

Revelation 1:17 And when I saw him, I fell at his feet as dead. And he laid his right hand upon me, saying unto me, Fear not; I am the first and the last:

Revelation 2:8 And unto the angel of the church in Smyrna write; These things saith the first and the last, which was dead, and is alive;

Revelation 22:13 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last.

Isaiah 41:4
Who hath wrought and done it, calling the generations from the beginning? I the LORD, the first, and with the last; I am he.

Isaiah 44:6
Thus saith the LORD the King of Israel, and his redeemer the LORD of hosts; I am the first, and I am the last; and beside me there is no God.

Isaiah 48:12
Hearken unto me, O Jacob and Israel, my called; I am he; I am the first, I also am the last.

Now lets look at who is the Savior:

Isaiah 43:11
I, even I, am the LORD ; and beside me there is no saviour.

Isaiah 45:21
Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD? and there is no God else beside me; a just God and a Saviour; there is none beside me.

Hosea 13:4
Yet I am the LORD thy God from the land of Egypt, and thou shalt know no god but me: for there is no saviour beside me.

1Timothy 1:1
Paul, an apostle of Jesus Christ by the commandment of God our Saviour, and Lord Jesus Christ, which is our hope;

2Peter 3:18
But grow in grace, and in the knowledge of our Lord and Saviour Jesus Christ. To him be glory both now and for ever. Amen.

Philippians 3:20
For our conversation is in heaven; from whence also we look for the Saviour, the Lord Jesus Christ:

Jesus is truly the Creator, Jehovah 'YAHWEH', the First and the Last, our Savior and Lord of the Sabbath. It is His day of worship from Creation, the day of rest, made for man not man for the Sabbath..

Genesis 2:1-2
1 Thus the heavens and the earth were completed in all their vast array.
2 By the seventh day God had finished the work he had been doing; so on the seventh day he rested from all his work. 3 Then God blessed the seventh day and made it holy, because on it he rested from all the work of creating that he had done.

The Sabbath was for all mankind which the Creator gave us. Our Lord and Saviour shows us.
You said to "Notice carefully" and then you listed the following two verses that begin talking about the Word and God and then you write in Jesus. You write He [Jesus]. There's no Jesus mentioned in John 1:3 or 1:10.

All things were made by Him, and without Him was not anything made that has been made. John 1:3

He [Jesus] was in the world, and the world was made by Him, and the world knew Him not. John 1:10
 

Grailhunter

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The original Aramaic syntax is dead.

There are differing options on this but none solid enough to debate.
I am a formally educated theologian in 5 countries. The research right now is focused on communities that still speak it. But still there is room for error because it is an old language. But then to be fair it is not like we know nothing about it.
 
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MonoBiblical

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There are differing options on this but none solid enough to debate.
I am a formally educated theologian in 5 countries. The research right now is focused on communities that still speak it. But still there is room for error because it is an old language. But then to be fair it is not like we know nothing about it.
I have a hypothesis that the Syria-Babylonians seem to have invented Greek before their language was transferred by the Stoics. When Rabbinic Jews started speaking Hebrew again, they forgot about Greek, and called the older Hebrew, Aramaic. I am wondering how Greece changed from an Aramaic dialect to Hellenic.

Also to say Hebrew is alive is like to me saying Latin is not dead. They are both very different now.
 

Grailhunter

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I have a hypothesis that the Syria-Babylonians seem to have invented Greek before their language was transferred by the Stoics. When Rabbinic Jews started speaking Hebrew again, they forgot about Greek, and called the older Hebrew, Aramaic. I am wondering how Greece changed from an Aramaic dialect to Hellenic.

Also to say Hebrew is alive is like to me saying Latin is not dead. They are both very different now.

LOL I am not sure if Latin was a live language when it was spoken.

As time goes on we learn more about the ancient languages. One of the reasons, and I say one of the reasons for the Septuagint was because the Jews were losing their ability to read their own language. That is why I say there is a difference in reading a language and speaking it. As time goes on we learn more.
 

GRACE ambassador

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Notice this topic "Jesus Is/Is not God" is against policy to be discussed - threads will be locked/deleted,
and members banned:

"This topic may not be initiated, discussed or debated at Christianity Board, whether it be for or against the Trinitarian view. Included in this is the side mantra of "Jesus is not God" Such posts/threads will be deleted immediately and disciplinary action will be taken in the form of warning points and/or bans depending on the outcome. Old threads will also be removed from public view as well as new ones." as per:

Policy - Topics That Can No-Longer Be Discussed at CyB
 
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marks

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No, it is complicated, but Hebrew is not a dead language. At one time there was a lot of Jews that could not read Hebrew, but the language never really died. People forget that there is a difference between reading and speaking a language. They and we know the basic characteristics of their alphabet.
Ancient Hebrew is in fact a dead languages, as the native speakers are long gone. Modern Hebrew is not actually the ancient Hebrew. It's a reconstitution based earlier Hebrew. Just like modern Greek is not the same as Koine Greek, which is not the same as Classical Greek.

From What is a Dead Language? (with pictures)

A dead language is a language which is no longer learned as a native language. Some well known examples of dead languages include Coptic, Ancient Greek, Latin, and Sanskirt, although there are numerous other dead languages from regions around the world, including huge numbers of Native American languages which died out with European colonialism. Some dead languages are topics of study because of their cultural, linguistic, or social importance, and some dead languages actually have numbers of speakers which exceed those of modern or living languages, languages which are learned as native tongues.

In some cases, a dead language mutates into a modern language. Ancient Greek, for example, was the obvious precursor to Modern Greek, although the two languages are markedly different. Latin gave birth to Spanish, French, Italian, and Portuguese, while Sanskrit was the predecessor of many Indian languages. In these instances, many academics study the dead language to learn more about the history of a culture.


Much love!
 
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Hobie

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You said to "Notice carefully" and then you listed the following two verses that begin talking about the Word and God and then you write in Jesus. You write He [Jesus]. There's no Jesus mentioned in John 1:3 or 1:10.

All things were made by Him, and without Him was not anything made that has been made. John 1:3

He [Jesus] was in the world, and the world was made by Him, and the world knew Him not. John 1:10
Lets read the whole context then as it shows Whom it was from verse 1, and we can see it is Jesus...
John 1
1 In the beginning was the Word [Jesus], and the Word [Jesus] was with God, and the Word [Jesus] was God.

2 The same [Jesus] was in the beginning with God.

3 All things were made by him [Jesus]; and without him [Jesus] was not any thing made that was made.

4 In him [Jesus] was life; and the life was the light of men.

5 And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.

6 There was a man sent from God, whose name was John.

7 The same came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light [Jesus], that all men through him might believe.

8 He was not that Light [Jesus], but was sent to bear witness of that Light [Jesus].

9 That was the true Light [Jesus], which lighteth every man that cometh into the world.

10 He [Jesus] was in the world, and the world was made by him [Jesus], and the world knew him [Jesus] not.

11 He [Jesus] came unto his own, and his [Jesus] own received him [Jesus] not.

12 But as many as received him [Jesus], to them gave he [Jesus] power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his [Jesus] name:

13 Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.

14 And the Word [Jesus] was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his [Jesus] glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

15 John bare witness of him [Jesus], and cried, saying, This was he [Jesus] of whom I spake, He [Jesus] that cometh after me is preferred before me: for he [Jesus] was before me.

16 And of his [Jesus] fulness have all we received, and grace for grace.

17 For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.

Scripture is clear Whom John was talking about, but we have to have the eyes that see....
 
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Peterlag

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Lets read the whole context then as it shows Whom it was from verse 1, and we can see it is Jesus...
John 1
1 In the beginning was the Word [Jesus], and the Word [Jesus] was with God, and the Word [Jesus] was God.

2 The same [Jesus] was in the beginning with God.

3 All things were made by him [Jesus]; and without him [Jesus] was not any thing made that was made.

4 In him [Jesus] was life; and the life was the light of men.

5 And the light shineth in darkness; and the darkness comprehended it not.

6 There was a man sent from God, whose name was John.

7 The same came for a witness, to bear witness of the Light [Jesus], that all men through him might believe.

8 He was not that Light [Jesus], but was sent to bear witness of that Light [Jesus].

9 That was the true Light [Jesus], which lighteth every man that cometh into the world.

10 He [Jesus] was in the world, and the world was made by him [Jesus], and the world knew him [Jesus] not.

11 He [Jesus] came unto his own, and his [Jesus] own received him [Jesus] not.

12 But as many as received him [Jesus], to them gave he [Jesus] power to become the sons of God, even to them that believe on his [Jesus] name:

13 Which were born, not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God.

14 And the Word [Jesus] was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his [Jesus] glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

15 John bare witness of him, and cried, saying, This was he [Jesus] of whom I spake, He [Jesus] that cometh after me is preferred before me: for he [Jesus] was before me.

16 And of his [Jesus] fulness have all we received, and grace for grace.

17 For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.

Scripture is clear Whom John was talking about, but we have to have the eyes that see....
You did it again right from the first verse you quoted. My Bible does not say... In the beginning was the Word [Jesus], and the Word [Jesus] was with God, and the Word [Jesus] was God. Are you reading from one of those modern translations where they write according to what their church already believes?

My Bible says... In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
 

Hobie

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You did it again right from the first verse you quoted. My Bible does not say... In the beginning was the Word [Jesus], and the Word [Jesus] was with God, and the Word [Jesus] was God. Are you reading from one of those modern translations where they write according to what their church already believes?

My Bible says... In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
This is core Christian belief, so not sure what you hold to that rejects this, sorry if I confused you pointing it out.

'The answer to this question is found by first understanding the reason why John wrote his gospel. We find his purpose clearly stated in John 20:30-31. “Many other signs therefore Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but these have been written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name.” Once we understand that John’s purpose was to introduce the readers of his gospel to Jesus Christ, establishing Who Jesus is (God in the flesh) and what He did, all with the sole aim of leading them to embrace the saving work of Christ in faith, we will be better able to understand why John introduces Jesus as “The Word” in John 1:1.

By starting out his gospel stating, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God,” John is introducing Jesus with a word or a term that both his Jewish and Gentile readers would have been familiar with. The Greek word translated “Word” in this passage is Logos, and it was common in both Greek philosophy and Jewish thought of that day. For example, in the Old Testament the “word” of God is often personified as an instrument for the execution of God’s will (Psalm 33:6; 107:20; 119:89; 147:15-18). So, for his Jewish readers, by introducing Jesus as the “Word,” John is in a sense pointing them back to the Old Testament where the Logos or “Word” of God is associated with the personification of God’s revelation. And in Greek philosophy, the term Logos was used to describe the intermediate agency by which God created material things and communicated with them. In the Greek worldview, the Logos was thought of as a bridge between the transcendent God and the material universe. Therefore, for his Greek readers the use of the term Logos would have likely brought forth the idea of a mediating principle between God and the world.

So, essentially, what John is doing by introducing Jesus as the Logos is drawing upon a familiar word and concept that both Jews and Gentiles of his day would have been familiar with and using that as the starting point from which he introduces them to Jesus Christ. But John goes beyond the familiar concept of Logos that his Jewish and Gentile readers would have had and presents Jesus Christ not as a mere mediating principle like the Greeks perceived, but as a personal being, fully divine, yet fully human. Also, Christ was not simply a personification of God’s revelation as the Jews thought, but was indeed God’s perfect revelation of Himself in the flesh, so much so that John would record Jesus’ own words to Philip: "Jesus said unto him, 'Have I been so long with you, and yet you have not come to know Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; how do you say, "Show us the Father"?'" (John 14:9). By using the term Logos or “Word” in John 1:1, John is amplifying and applying a concept with which his audience was familiar and using that to introduce his readers to the true Logos of God in Jesus Christ, the Living Word of God, fully God and yet fully man, who came to reveal God to man and redeem all who believe in Him from their sin.'
 
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Peterlag

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This is core Christian belief, so not sure what you hold to that rejects this, sorry if I confused you pointing it out.

'The answer to this question is found by first understanding the reason why John wrote his gospel. We find his purpose clearly stated in John 20:30-31. “Many other signs therefore Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but these have been written that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name.” Once we understand that John’s purpose was to introduce the readers of his gospel to Jesus Christ, establishing Who Jesus is (God in the flesh) and what He did, all with the sole aim of leading them to embrace the saving work of Christ in faith, we will be better able to understand why John introduces Jesus as “The Word” in John 1:1.

By starting out his gospel stating, “In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God,” John is introducing Jesus with a word or a term that both his Jewish and Gentile readers would have been familiar with. The Greek word translated “Word” in this passage is Logos, and it was common in both Greek philosophy and Jewish thought of that day. For example, in the Old Testament the “word” of God is often personified as an instrument for the execution of God’s will (Psalm 33:6; 107:20; 119:89; 147:15-18). So, for his Jewish readers, by introducing Jesus as the “Word,” John is in a sense pointing them back to the Old Testament where the Logos or “Word” of God is associated with the personification of God’s revelation. And in Greek philosophy, the term Logos was used to describe the intermediate agency by which God created material things and communicated with them. In the Greek worldview, the Logos was thought of as a bridge between the transcendent God and the material universe. Therefore, for his Greek readers the use of the term Logos would have likely brought forth the idea of a mediating principle between God and the world.

So, essentially, what John is doing by introducing Jesus as the Logos is drawing upon a familiar word and concept that both Jews and Gentiles of his day would have been familiar with and using that as the starting point from which he introduces them to Jesus Christ. But John goes beyond the familiar concept of Logos that his Jewish and Gentile readers would have had and presents Jesus Christ not as a mere mediating principle like the Greeks perceived, but as a personal being, fully divine, yet fully human. Also, Christ was not simply a personification of God’s revelation as the Jews thought, but was indeed God’s perfect revelation of Himself in the flesh, so much so that John would record Jesus’ own words to Philip: "Jesus said unto him, 'Have I been so long with you, and yet you have not come to know Me, Philip? He who has seen Me has seen the Father; how do you say, "Show us the Father"?'" (John 14:9). By using the term Logos or “Word” in John 1:1, John is amplifying and applying a concept with which his audience was familiar and using that to introduce his readers to the true Logos of God in Jesus Christ, the Living Word of God, fully God and yet fully man, who came to reveal God to man and redeem all who believe in Him from their sin.'
I disagree. I do not see it as a core Christian belief, but rather a Catholic one since it was them who invented such a concept. Jesus Christ is not a lexical definition of logos. The verse does not say "In the beginning was Jesus." The "Word" is not synonymous with Jesus, or even the "Messiah." The word logos in John 1:1 refers to God's creative self-expression... His reason, purpose and plans, especially as they are brought into action. It refers to God's self-expression or communication of Himself. This has come to pass through His creation and especially the heavens. It has come through the spoken word of the prophets and through Scripture. Most notably it has come into being through His Son. The logos is the expression of God and is His communication of Himself just as a "word" is an outward expression of a person's thoughts. This outward expression of God has now occurred through His Son and thus it's perfectly understandable why Jesus is called the "Word." Jesus is an outward expression of God's reason, wisdom, purpose and plan. For the same reason we call revelation "a word from God" and the Bible "the Word of God."

If we understand that the logos is God's expression... His plan, purpose, reason and wisdom. Then it is clear they were with Him "in the beginning." Scripture says God's wisdom was "from the beginning" and it was common in Hebrew writing to personify a concept such as wisdom. The fact that the logos "became" flesh shows it did not exist that way before. There is no pre-existence for Jesus in this verse other than his figurative "existence" as the plan, purpose or wisdom of God for the salvation of man. The same is true with the "word" in writing. It had no literal pre-existence as a "spirit-book" somehow in eternity past, but came into being as God gave the revelation to people and they wrote it down.
 

Aunty Jane

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UI disagree. I do not see it as a core Christian belief, but rather a Catholic one since it was them who invented such a concept. Jesus Christ is not a lexical definition of logos.
I too see it as a Catholic invention....not as a scripturally based doctrine at all.
But as for “the Word” (ho logos) being a title for Jesus....

Rev 19:11-16....clearly states it...
“I saw heaven opened, and look! a white horse. And the one seated on it is called Faithful and True, and he judges and carries on war in righteousness. 12 His eyes are a fiery flame, and on his head are many diadems. He has a name written that no one knows but he himself, 13 and he is clothed with an outer garment stained with blood, and he is called by the name The Word of God. 14 Also, the armies in heaven were following him on white horses, and they were clothed in white, clean, fine linen. 15 And out of his mouth protrudes a sharp, long sword with which to strike the nations, and he will shepherd them with a rod of iron. Moreover, he treads the winepress of the fury of the wrath of God the Almighty. 16 On his outer garment, yes, on his thigh, he has a name written, King of kings and Lord of lords.”

This “King of Kings” can be none other than the Lord Jesus Christ! The name he is called is “The Word [logos] of God”
So I don’t know why your teachers would tell you something that is not true?

The title “logos” can also mean a “spokesman”...one who speaks God’s words.....Jesus definitely did that.

John 8:25-30...
“So they [the Jews] began to say to him: “Who are you?” Jesus replied to them: “Why am I even speaking to you at all? 26 I have many things to speak concerning you and to pass judgment on. As a matter of fact, the One who sent me is true, and the very things I heard from him I am speaking in the world.27 They did not grasp that he was talking to them about the Father. 28 Jesus then said: “After you have lifted up the Son of man, then you will know that I am he and that I do nothing of my own initiative; but just as the Father taught me, I speak these things. 29 And the One who sent me is with me; he did not abandon me to myself, because I always do the things pleasing to him.” 30 As he was saying these things, many put faith in him.”

There are too many instances where Jesus gives clear statements about the fact that he is not Yahweh.
His Father is Yahweh, who has only one name.....Jesus has several names depending on the role he is fulfilling. (Phil 2:9; Rev 3:12) “Jesus the Christ” (anointed one) is only one of them.
The verse does not say "In the beginning was Jesus." The "Word" is not synonymous with Jesus, or even the "Messiah." The word logos in John 1:1 refers to God's creative self-expression...
The word “logos” has many meanings as Strongs defines the word...

“of speech
  1. a word, uttered by a living voice, embodies a conception or idea
  2. what someone has said
    1. a word
    2. the sayings of God
    3. decree, mandate or order
    4. of the moral precepts given by God
    5. Old Testament prophecy given by the prophets
    6. what is declared, a thought, declaration, aphorism, a weighty saying, a dictum, a maxim
  3. discourse
    1. the act of speaking, speech
    2. the faculty of speech, skill and practice in speaking
    3. a kind or style of speaking
    4. a continuous speaking discourse - instruction”

There are more .....so we are talking about someone who bears the title “The Word of God” who is a real and separate person, who is not God, (capital “G”) but who is “godlike or divine”.....and who speaks for God.
This one was “with” “God” “in the beginning”....since the eternal God had no beginning, this is speaking about “the beginning of God’s creation”.....of whom the Revelation says is the son. (Rev 3:14) God’s “firstborn”. (Col 1:15)

The logos is the expression of God and is His communication of Himself just as a "word" is an outward expression of a person's thoughts. This outward expression of God has now occurred through His Son and thus it's perfectly understandable why Jesus is called the "Word." Jesus is an outward expression of God's reason, wisdom, purpose and plan. For the same reason we call revelation "a word from God" and the Bible "the Word of God."
The Bible clearly indicates that this is a title for Jesus. Is there some reason scripturally where the Bible states otherwise? Is there some reason why the son of God couldn’t have existed in heaven with his Father before coming to the earth as a human? He has been with him since the beginning.....
The fact that the logos "became" flesh shows it did not exist that way before. There is no pre-existence for Jesus in this verse other than his figurative "existence" as the plan, purpose or wisdom of God for the salvation of man.
Jesus himself said he had “come down from heaven” (John 6:38) and was returning there to “prepare a place” (John 14:1-4) for his disciples...his elect....those with “the heavenly calling”. (Heb 3:1)

It staggers me that so many do not allow scripture to answer their questions....the most fundamental question there is of course, is....who is God? The answer is not Jesus.
Jesus himself said.....
“This means everlasting life, their coming to know you, the only true God, and the one whom you sent, Jesus Christ.”
Jesus identifies “the only true God” as someone other than himself.....and says he was “sent” by him.
If Jesus was God he would have said...”This means everlasting life, their knowing ME, the only true God.”...but he didn’t say that, did he?
The same is true with the "word" in writing. It had no literal pre-existence as a "spirit-book" somehow in eternity past, but came into being as God gave the revelation to people and they wrote it down.
“Logos” can mean many things.....you have to use context to determine what is being alluded to....
“The word of God” is also Scripture....God’s written word, spoken by God to others that he chose as his secretaries.

Paul wrote to Timothy in his second letter....
“You, however, continue in the things that you learned and were persuaded to believe, knowing from whom you learned them 15 and that from infancy you have known the holy writings, which are able to make you wise for salvation through faith in Christ Jesus. 16 All Scripture is inspired of God and beneficial for teaching, for reproving, for setting things straight, for disciplining in righteousness, 17 so that the man of God may be fully competent, completely equipped for every good work.”

So Scripture should be used for settling all matters.....for reproving those who may be sticking to beliefs that are in error, and in disciplining those who sin....the Scriptures equip us to be competent in our spreading of the gospel message, and for the good works that Jesus sent us out to do.

God’s word has power....in all its manifestations...
 
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