You've missed a '?' at the end of verse '47'.What do you make of this?
Acts 10:47-48 NIV
“Surely no one can stand in the way of their being baptized with water. They have received the Holy Spirit just as we have.”
48 So he ordered that they be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ. Then they asked Peter to stay with them for a few days.
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Apostle Peter in that verse is affirming is there any one who would stand in his way, if he were to baptize with water these Gentiles who have received the Spirit just as they Jews have.
When there was none opposed, Peter commanded them to be baptize with water in the name of Jesus Christ. In other words, just before a body is 'dunk' in water, elders proclaim; 'In the name of Jesus Christ, I baptize you in the name of the FATHER, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost.'
Peterlag, is making his own version just to fit his believe and agenda by claiming water baptism is no longer required for the Gentiles, after J.B., Jesus and the disciples or Jews. By the way, did anyone answer 'no' to Peter, that he no longer need to water baptize, and the verse?
Peterlag thought by his 'twisted' reply among others in contradiction, he could just slide by like a serpent. Now, let us witness how he can slide by the scripture quote in regards Philip and the eunuch. Where clearly water baptism was conducted on this Gentile further in ch. 8, just before further in ch. 10 by Peter.
So, what's his excuse this time?
Romans 3:
4. GOD forbid yea, let GOD be true, but every man a liar; as it is written, That thou mightest be justified in thy sayings, and mightest overcome when thou art judged.