RLT63
Well-Known Member
The NET, the NASB and the KJV have it right and if you care to check the NIV has footnotes that give the correct translation. The NASB 95 is the most accurate version that is based on the Critical Text and I love the NET full notes edition.Here is what the introduction to the NLT says (in part), "The goal of any Bible translation is to convey the meaning and content of the ancient Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek texts as accurately as possible to contemporary readers. The challenge for our translators was to create a text that would communicate as clearly and powerfully to today’s readers as the original texts did to readers and listeners in the ancient biblical world. The resulting translation is easy to read and understand, while also accurately communicating the meaning and content of the original biblical texts. The NLT is a general-purpose text especially good for study, devotional reading, and to be read aloud in public worship. We believe that the New Living Translation—which combines the latest biblical scholarship with a clear, dynamic writing style—will communicate God’s word powerfully to all who read it."
Notice that the word "paraphrase" is absent, so your claim that "it's a paraphrase" is clearly misleading. The verses that you cite are translated differently in different English translations. For example, the NRSVue translates 1 Corinthians 7:36-37 as " If anyone thinks that he is behaving indecently toward his fiancée, if his passions are strong and so it has to be, let him marry as he wishes; it is no sin. Let them marry. But if someone stands firm in his resolve, being under no necessity but having his own desire under control, and has determined in his own mind to keep her as his fiancée, he will do well."
The NET translates these verses as " If anyone thinks he is acting inappropriately toward his virgin, if she is past the bloom of youth and it seems necessary, he should do what he wishes; he does not sin. Let them marry. But the man who is firm in his commitment, and is under no necessity but has control over his will, and has decided in his own mind to keep his own virgin, does well."
The NASB: "But if anyone thinks that he is acting dishonorably toward his virgin, if she is past her youth and it ought to be so, let him do what he wishes, he is not sinning; let them marry. But the one who stands firm in his heart, if he is not under constraint, but has authority [d]over his own will, and has decided this in his own heart, to keep his own virgin, he will do well."
The NLT: "But if a man thinks that he’s treating his fiancée improperly and will inevitably give in to his passion, let him marry her as he wishes. It is not a sin. But if he has decided firmly not to marry and there is no urgency and he can control his passion, he does well not to marry."
The KJV: "But if any man think that he behaveth himself uncomely toward his virgin, if she pass the flower of her age, and need so require, let him do what he will, he sinneth not: let them marry.
Nevertheless he that standeth stedfast in his heart, having no necessity, but hath power over his own will, and hath so decreed in his heart that he will keep his virgin, doeth well."
Which one, according to you is "right"? Which one is most easily understood? Which conveys the meaning most clearly? And why do you claim that you have provided "the proof text"? It's laughable! This is not about a father deciding if his daughter can be given in marriage. If your Bible changes this clear and obvious meaning then it undoubtedly "makes changes" in other places too.
Don't you see the absurdity of your claim? What gives you the delusion of having perfect understanding?
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