Recent content by RedFan

Indeed. And the exact same phrase (ὁ θεὸς) in John 20:28 has the exact same meaning, wouldn't you agree?

That isn't what I was discussing with you. I was discussing whether ὁ θεὸς can be a reference to "God" (as opposed to "god" or "a god"). You seem to think it cannot, based on 2 Cor. 4:4. Try explaining 2 Cor. 1:18 then! Do you want to discuss Christology, or do you want to discuss the Greek...

The definite article "the" is in both, ὁ θεὸς ("ho theos") and τοῦ Θεοῦ ("tou theou"). Don't you understand that ὁ and tou both imply "the"? In Koine Greek the definite article has different endings to match the noun it is associated with, but in the genitive case ("of God") it isn't expressed.

Aren't you aware that the same Greek word will have different endings to designate the case of the noun?

But it's ὁ θεὸς ("ho theos") and τοῦ Θεοῦ ("tou theou")! That's what 2 Cor. 4:4 says. Show us a Greek NT that says otherwise.

I don't know what you are looking at that has "Ton Theon" in it. Can you share a link? Meanwhile, perhaps you can explain how 2 Cor. 4:4 proves anything relevant, by addressing my post:

I'm gratified that all your examples are post-Nicaea. As I said in Post #1113, "The "Catholic" Church as it existed in 325 CE throughout the Latin West and the Greek East was not the "Roman" Catholic Church as you would think of it today. Rome's hegemony 1700 years ago did not extend to...

The same word, but the case is different (nominative vs. genitive).

On the subject of Rome resolving Eastern disputes, here's the view of Henry Chadwick, The Early Church (1993): “Three bishops (Rome, Alexandria and Antioch) had traditionally exercised a measure of jurisdiction beyond the frontiers of their province, Alexandria controlling upper Egypt and...

How can you seriously say "most of the time" here? There were many East-centered or East-originating heresies in the first three centuries of Christianity, and most of them were put down by Eastern bishoprics, not by Rome. I'm having trouble thinking of a single second-or third-century Eastern...

I don't understand what you are saying.

The Council of Nicaea, having been subscribed by over three hundred bishops, was ipso facto legitimate, regardless of the Pope's physical absence. I would abhor any other rule. Not sure why you accuse me of inventing it! Pope Sylvester (if, as you say, he indeed added his signature to those...

Sorry, but there isn't a shred of evidence for that collaboration. None of these three links offers such support. Your "Anti-Catholic myths" link doesn't mention Pope Sylvester at all. Your popehistory.com link states: "The pope had two legates named Vincentius and Vitus who represented him...

It wasn't impossible for Constantine to convene the Council of Nicaea without involving Pope Sylvester in the decision. Its exactly what happened. Constantine invited hundreds of bishops from around the Mediterranean -- including Sylvester. And the latter sent Victor and Vincentius in his...

I ask a third time: Don't the Greek lexicons you are referring to have both upper case and lower case lettering? Meanwhile, your reference to 2 Cor. 4:4 is not an instance of "Ton Theon" and "Theon" taking on definite and indefinite meanings for God in the same paragraph. (I assume you meant...