All confirm Jesus is necessarily not God.
Again, no. What they show is relationship of Son and Father. The texts do not say that Jesus is not Deity, but show that He is in nature Deity, and has a relationship to His Father, who is also in nature Deity.
The evidence that Jesus is not God is overwhelming.
No, what you did, is what Muslims attempt to do (it is an error), and simply try to cite passages which show Jesus' humanity, and do not address those which show His Divinity (Deity). Showing Jesus' humanity does not negate the texts on Jesus' Deity. So far, you have provided no evidence against the material I have provided.
Said differently, the evidence is so weak that Jesus is God,
Now you claim that there is "evidence" that "Jesus is God", but attack not the validity, but its power, saying that such evidence is "weak". Yet, even weak evidence is not no evidence, logically. Yet, to say "weak", without demonstration, is merely your subjective opinion. I am asking you to deal with the facts of the matter I laid before you.
apologists have to resort to supposing an innocuous expression “I am” is a claim of deity.
I cited (not myself) scripture and Jesus' own words. Will you cease from the strawman and address the facts from Jesus' own mouth? Again, I showed from specific passages and texts that while some "I am" statements are indeed not claiming Deity, yet many others, in their contexts do claim this.
This contradicts Jesus own claim that any thing he says that glorifies himself means nothing.
Joh 8:14 Jesus answered and said unto them,
Though I bear record of myself, yet my record is true: for
I know whence I came, and whither I go; but ye cannot tell whence I come, and whither I go.
Jesus wasn't glorifying Himself. As you stated, He was stating exactly what the Father told Him to say about Himself, and thus it was the Father that glorifies the Son as Deity, and to this all must acknowledge, as I shared with you (Philippians 2:11; 1 Corinthians 12:3, 15:47 -
Proof that Jesus is God ), therefore it was the Father's claim about the Son, and not the Son's own claim about Himself. The Son merely accepts the Father's claim for Himself.
Trinitarians claim it means everything.
Again, for the 5th time. I am not "trinitarian", nor advocating "trinitarianism" (Roman Catholic definition, a heretical and erroneous doctrine of Romanism). I have advocated for the eternal Heavenly Trio. A doctrine and belief as day is to night when compared to the previous.
In addition, it contradicts Jesus saying God is greater and knows more than him.
Jesus actually said:
Joh 10:28 And I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish,
neither shall any man pluck them out of my hand.
Joh_10:29 My Father, which gave them me,
is greater than all; and
no man is able to pluck them out of my Father's hand.
The context of that "greater" is referring to all creation, not to Creators (Father and Son). Jesus is stating that no one in all creation can take the Father's gift to His Son from the Son's hand. Jesus is not including himself in those who would seek to pluck (take by force) the gift from His own hand. He is excluded. Thus the "all" (John 10:29) is limited to the contextual scope of Jesus' words.
Joh_14:28 Ye have heard how I said unto you, I go away, and come again unto you. If ye loved me, ye would rejoice, because I said, I go unto the Father: for my Father is greater than I.
John 14:28 is in the context of John 14:12, and is parallel, for Jesus says in John 14:28, ""because I said, I go unto the Father", and when did He says that? in John 14:12:
Joh 14:12 Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that believeth on me,
the works that I do shall he do also; and
greater works than these shall he do; because I go unto my Father.
Did you see what was referred to as being "greater"?
Jesus, having taking upon Himself the nature of mankind (Philippians 2, etc), could only be in one place at one time. He was very limited, and unable to rely upon His own power, but had to (as an example of humanity) rely upon His Father. The Father has no such restrictions, and can manifest that power anywhere at any time and place. This is why Jesus said what He did. Jesus was not saying that His Father was greater in nature (except as opposed to Jesus' human nature, not His nature as Deity, being Son of the Father).
Yet, there is a heirarchical position between Father and Son, even as given in type in the OT:
Gen_41:40 Thou shalt be over my house, and according unto thy word shall all my people be ruled:
only in the throne will I be greater than thou.
For the Son must sit at the "right hand of" His Father, but notice it is on an equal level and eternal nature of Deity, even as "God" ((θεος ην ο λογος) of John 1:1c) over all Creation, for it was the Son, at the Father's will/command, that all things (created) were made (Colossians 1:16; John 1:1-3; Hebrews 1:1-3; Ephesians 3:9; etc).
Therefore, please drop the Muslim argument, which distorts the texts in their context.
Additionally, since you did not provide any text which shows that the Father "knows more than" Jesus, I can basically ignore that claim until yo do. However, if you are thinking of Mark 13:32, read it carefully, for it does not say what you desire it to.
Mar_13:32 But of that day and that hour
knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father.
Compare also:
Mat_24:36 But of that day and hour
knoweth no man, no, not the angels of heaven, but my Father only.
In looking closely, you will notice that Jesus places himself above the realm of men and angels (all creation). In Mark 13:32, the word "knoweth" in its context means to "make known" (see also 1 Corinthians 2:2 - For
I determined not to know any thing among you, save Jesus Christ, and him crucified.) Jesus is saying that men will not make known the "day and hour", and neither will angels, and neither will He, for it is within the prerogative of the Father alone to make known the "day and hour", since it belongs to the marriage arrangement of the Son to His Bride, and the Father always sets the time, and Jesus makes this clear:
Act_1:7 And he said unto them, It is not for you to know the times or the seasons,
which the Father hath put in his own power.
So, it is not that Jesus does not know the time, but that He will not make it known, and leaves it to the Father to make known. Jesus knows all things that the Father knows, by the Infinite and Eternal Holy Spirit:
Joh_3:34 For he whom God hath sent speaketh the words of God: for
God giveth not the Spirit by measure unto him.
Joh_5:20 For the Father loveth the Son, and
sheweth him all things that himself doeth: and he will shew him greater works than these, that ye may marvel.
God did not even hide from Abraham what God was going to do, and why then would the Father, hide from the Son the "day and hour"? Can you explain? God the Father will not even hide it from us forever, but soon will tell us all.
Voice of God announcing the hour after the close of Probation (after the period of silence in Heaven; Revelation 8:1; Psalms 50:3); Jeremiah 25:30; Joel 2:11, 3:16; Amos 1:2; Job 40:9; Psalms 18:13, 77:18, 104:7; 1 Samuel 2:10; 2 Samuel 22:14; Matthew 24:36; Mark 13:32; John 12:29; 2 Peter 1:17-18; Revelation 14:2; &c.
Even now, we can know the events in their order, though the "day and hour" is yet withheld from us by the Father until the appropriate time:
Matthew 24:32 Now learn
a parable of the fig tree; When his branch is yet tender, and putteth forth leaves, ye know that summer is nigh:
Matthew 24:33
So likewise ye, when ye shall
see all these things,
know that it is near, even at the doors.
Matthew 24:34 Verily I say unto you,
This generation shall not pass, till all these things be fulfilled.
Mark 13:32, Jesus is speaking directly to
the disciples, then at that moment, and of course they would not then know the day and hour, nor need to know from Jesus. It could only be announced by the Father Himself, long after Jesus ascended into Heaven.
