Another trinitarian lie. Thomas never stated Jesus is God. You're misquoting as usual. Look into the Greek in what he said.
In answer Thomas said to him:
“The Lord of me and the God of me!” (John 20:28) He doubted that Jesus Christ was resurrected. Also note "
No man has seen God at any time;" (John 1:18) He never stated Jesus is God nor shouted You are God which is what trinitarians are trying to twist.
Again, strawman of "trinitarians". Why not just address the texts and argument, rather than make an ad hominem?
Let's look at the text:
[12-E] My Lord and my God
John 20:26 KJB - And after eight days again his disciples were within, and Thomas with them:
then came Jesus, the doors being shut, and stood in the midst, and said, Peace
be unto you.
John 20:27 KJB - Then saith he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust
it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing.
John 20:28 KJB - And Thomas answered and said unto him, My Lord and my God.
John 20:29 KJB - Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed
are they that have not seen, and
yet have believed.
The texts of John 20:26-29 KJB are clear in their inspired [2 Timothy 3:16,17; 2 Peter 1:21 KJB] statements, and in the very witness [1 John 5:6-9 KJB] of the Apostle Thomas in regards Jesus Christ. He is, “Lord” and “God” of Thomas who, a moment before the revelation, had doubted. However, there are some which attempt to 'excuse' these words of Thomas by the following [these being the exact words]:
[1] Thomas was surprised when he saw the Lord in their midst. “My God!” was just an expression, a “statement of surprise.”
[2] Thomas was actually addressing both the Father [“My God”] and the Lord Jesus Christ [“My Lord”] when he said, “My Lord and my God.”
[3] It is not a teaching text (non-didactic text); actually Thomas made a mistake when he said, “My Lord and my God.”
[4] Thomas could have been saying my master and judge. The underlying koine Greek word 'theos' is generic and has many meanings and can mean 'judge'.
What is not represented as an answer, is the obvious, that Thomas actually
believed in his affirmative statement that Jesus was indeed “... [his [possessive, 'my']] Lord and [his [possessive, 'my']] God”.
Consider the text itself:
John 20:28 KJB - And Thomas answered and said unto him,
My Lord and my God.
John 20:28 GNT - ἀπεκρίθη Θωμᾶς καὶ εἶπεν αὐτῷ·
ὁ Κύριός μου καὶ ὁ Θεός μου.
While the King James Bible is perfect in the way English reads, the koine Greek itself undermines the 4 excuses, by reading, “
ὁ Κύριός μου καὶ
ὁ Θεός μου”, which in harsh English, reads, '
the Lord of me and
the God of me'.
In fact, there is an Old Testament text which reads in a similar way, which will help us understand how to read the text:
Psalms 35:23 KJB - Stir up thyself, and awake to my judgment,
even unto my cause,
my God and my Lord.
Side note, in the so-called LXX [
*Septuagint, the work of Origen in his Hexapla, not the work of 70 or 72 Jewish scholars from the twelve tribes, and definitely not written before AD 100].
Psalms 35:23 (34:23) LXX
* - ἐξεγέρθητι, κύριε, καὶ πρόσχες τῇ κρίσει μου,
ὁ θεός μου καὶ ὁ κύριός μου, εἰς τὴν δίκην μου.
The understanding is obvious, and the language, other than reversed, is the very same. It's like saying the phrase, "My Lord and my Saviour", or "My God and my Saviour." Both phrases refer to a single person being spoken of or to.
The very context of the John 20:28 KJB text is between Jesus and His doubting disciple. Jesus speaks to Thomas, and Thomas' statement [then of new found faith and belief] is directly in response and directed to Jesus Christ Himself because of His appearing after crucifixion, death and burial, now resurrected and alive.
John 20:26 KJB - And after eight days again his disciples were within, and Thomas with them:
then came
Jesus, the doors being shut, and stood in the midst, and said, Peace
be unto you.
John 20:27 KJB - Then saith
he to Thomas, Reach hither thy finger, and behold my hands; and reach hither thy hand, and thrust
it into my side: and be not faithless, but believing.
John 20:28 KJB - And Thomas
answered and
said unto him, My Lord and my God.
John 20:29 KJB -
Jesus saith unto him, Thomas, because thou hast seen me, thou hast believed: blessed
are they that have not seen, and
yet have believed.
The words, “behold”, “faithless”, “believing”, “seen”, “believed”, “blessed
are they that have not seen” and “believed” are directly connected to the statement of Thomas to Jesus and His appearing, and also related to the previous week, wherein Thomas had not been present with the others. Jesus is herein specifically designated the “Lord” and “God” of Thomas.
However, not to merely discount the 4 objections, let us now consider each one more closely:
[1] Thomas exclaimed in “surprise” unto “him” [Jesus; vs 26 - “Jesus”, vs 27 - “he”, “my”, “my”, vs 28 - “answered and said unto him”, vs 29 - “Jesus”], when he said, “... my God ...”!
This 'explanation' is that Thomas had an 'outburst', a sudden expression of surprise, likened unto when someone smashes their finger or is caught off guard, a knee-jerk reaction and is sometimes expressed in various translations with an exclamation point [!]. This argument is based upon a punctuation mark, which is not represented in the koine Greek, neither the English context, nor in several other various translations [which use a period [.] or even semi-colon [;], such as the ASV, Darby's, Douay Rheims, Noah Webster's, etc], including the King James Bible itself. Yet, even if the majority of translations utilized a period [.], semi-colon [;] or an exclamation point [!], it would not be proof, since truth is not confirmed by majority. Truth is self-confirming. Moreso, the koine Greek has no punctuation. Consider the following two examples of sentences, that even punctuation, whether a period [.] or exclamation point [!] would not alter the understanding:
[1] Sample:
“Jesus is the anointed King and Messiah.”
“... It is Jesus.”
Text:
“... My Lord and my God.”
Simply a true statement. A profession of that which is true.
[2] Sample:
“Jesus is the anointed King and Messiah!”
“... It is Jesus!”
Text:
“... My Lord and my God!”
An exclamation of the profound truth.
The question then becomes, “Which of the two sentences, whether period [.] or exclamation point [!], is saying anything that is not true in regards Jesus?” The answer is, “Neither.” Doctrinal understanding is never to be founded upon punctuation, but rather:
Isaiah 28:10 KJB - For precept
must be upon precept, precept upon precept; line upon line, line upon line; here a little,
and there a little:
Isaiah 8:20 KJB - To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word,
it is because
there is no light in them.
The text is not recorded in the same way as if anyone were to simply blurt out, “OUCH!” or “YEOW!”, which would be something that takes very little cognitive ability, but rather what Thomas says, if in exclamation, would be akin to anyone exclaiming “That really, really hurts and smarts!” Clear cognitive reasoning which is much more than that of simply “OW!”
However, there is no exclamation point here, but rather, Thomas “answered” [John 20:28 KJB] Jesus, whom had just spoken to him in John 20:27 KJB. Thomas formulates a complete and complex sentence in response unto Jesus, beginning with “My Lord”, adding unto it, “and”, finally finishing with, “my God.” This is a deep and complex thought formulated into words and not something 'right off of the top of the head'. This is not a 'knee-jerk' reaction, but rather total realization of who it was that stood before him resurrected.
[2] Thomas was actually addressing both the Father [“My God”] and the Lord Jesus Christ [“My Lord”] when he said, “My Lord and my God.”
This “explanation” directly overlooks the nearest immediate context and violates it. The nearest context and scripture reveals that, “And Thomas
answered and
said unto him ...”
Thomas was not addressing multiple individuals or persons in this passage. The “him” is
singular and not plural:
John 20:28 GNT-TR+ - καιG2532 CONJ απεκριθηG611 V-ADI-3S οG3588 T-NSM θωμαςG2381 N-NSM καιG2532 CONJ ειπενG3004 V-2AAI-3S
αυτωG846 P-DSM οG3588 T-NSM κυριοςG2962 N-NSM μουG1473 P-1GS καιG2532 CONJ οG3588 T-NSM θεοςG2316 N-NSM μουG1473 P-1GS
The “him” is the singular person, Jesus [vs 26 - “Jesus”, vs 27 - “he”, “my”, “my”, vs 28 - “answered and said unto him”, vs 29 - “Jesus”] who had just spoken to Thomas. Thomas “answered” Jesus, and this means to respond to something said, done, etc, just as Jesus had “answered” the devil in the wilderness, or an echo in “answering”.