It amazes me how some folks can't get the perfectly clear meaning of Jn 1. The Word was God and the Word became flesh. It has to be demonic powers clouding their minds.
it could be that, or it could be because many scholars have rendered it according to rule of koine grammar
1808 “and the word was a god”
The New Testament, in An Improved Version, Upon the Basis of Archbishop Newcome’s New Translation: With a Corrected Text, London.
1864 “and a god was the Word”
The Emphatic Diaglott (J21, interlinear reading), by Benjamin Wilson, New York and London.
1935 “and the Word was divine” The Bible—An American Translation, by J. M. P. Smith and E. J. Goodspeed, Chicago.
1975 “and a god (or, of a divine kind) was the Word”
Das Evangelium nach Johannes, by Siegfried Schulz,Göttingen, Germany.
1978 “and godlike sort was the Logos”
Das Evangelium nach Johannes,by Johannes Schneider,Berlin.
1979 “and a god was the Logos”
Das Evangelium nach Johannes,by Jürgen Becker, Würzburg, Germany.
I dont know if you can get your head around this, but if you know anything about koine greek, you would know why the above translators render the verse this way. In the verse, the Greek word θεός (the‧os′) is a
singular predicate noun occurring before the verb and is not preceded by the definite article. You must take not of that fact because the Logos in John 1:1 is a singular anarthrous predicate noun preceding a verb.
When there is such a noun, translators insert a definite article. Take the following verses Mark 6:49 'a ghost'; Mark 11:32 'a prophet'; John 4:19 'a prophet'; John 6:70 'a devil'; John 8:44; 9:17; 10:1, 13, 33; 12:6 as examples. In all these verses translators inserted the indefinite article “a” before the predicate noun in order to bring out the quality or characteristic of the subject. That is what they do throughout the new testament, but many choose not to follow that rule in John 1:1.
There is only one reason why they do not follow that rule in John 1:1 Shame on them!