Was Adam Imparted Free Will From The Beginning Of Creation?

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Kermos

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An intercarnactic phenomenon developed among the free willians.

The free willians repeatedly advocate Adam had free will to choose away from God in the creation account (Genesis chapters 1-3); however, the free willian advocation serves absolutely nothing to support the free willian philosophy that Adam could choose toward God.

The creation account exposed Adam's action against God, not toward God, but opposition to God (Genesis 3:6, Genesis 3:17).

The main point is Adam was incapable of causing himself to be right with God.

The free willians apply illogic by arguing that because Adam could and did choose to eat of the tree against God then that proves Adam could choose God.

An opposite does not prove it's opposite.

Furthermore, the Word of God unequivocally illuminates that Adam acted not willingly when he ate of the forbidden tree as well as the Woman's voice was the cause for Adam's eating of the prohibited tree (Genesis 2:16-17, Genesis 3:6, Genesis 3:17, Romans 8:20), and the following paragraphs scripturally explain this in detail.

Despite the Creation account in Genesis 1-3 being silent about man's "will", there exists Apostolic teaching on the matter of man's "will" with regard to the creation account.

Adam did not exercise willpower to disobey God's command not to eat of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil (Genesis 2:16-17) for Paul wrote "the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly" (Romans 8:20, NASB); therefore, Adam did not make a choice, not a willing choice, to eat.

A "choice" by Adam is explicitly excluded by using scripture with scripture referencing, in fact, "the creature was made subject to vanity, not willingly" (Romans 8:20, KJV), so Adam acted not willingly but rather acted subject to vanity in his eating of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil.

"Not willingly" indicates "not choice".

"Not willingly" indicates "not free will".

Some people may claim that Paul was referring to a timeframe exclusively after what they call "the fall" (after Adam ate of the tree [Genesis 3:6]), but the continuity of the passage of Romans 8:20-22must be taken as a whole.

Paul left no room for disputing to the timeframe for which "not willingly" applies, for Paul also wrote "we know that the whole creation groans and suffers the pains of childbirth together until now" (Romans 8:22), and the phrase "until now" is the timeframe's most recent limiting factor which memes that all times prior to "now" are included, so "the whole creation" includes the moment after God breathed into Adam's nostrils the breath of life (Genesis 2:7) until Adam ate of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil (Genesis 3:6); therefore, we can be certain that Paul includes the timeframe that Adam ate of the tree in the travailing/groaning because Paul wrote of all of this in the same passage, i.e. Romans 8:20-22.

Paul includes the "not willingly" (Romans 8:20-22) to apply to the time that Adam ate of the tree (Genesis 3:6).

After Adam ate of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil (Genesis 3:6), to Adam, God said "Because you have listened to the voice of your wife, and have eaten from the tree about which I commanded you, saying, 'You shall not eat from it'; Cursed is the ground because of you; In toil you will eat of it All the days of your life. Both thorns and thistles it shall grow for you; And you will eat the plants of the field; By the sweat of your face You will eat bread, Till you return to the ground, Because from it you were taken; For you are dust, And to dust you shall return." (Genesis 3:17-19).

The word "because" inherently indicates cause in (Genesis 3:17), and the word "because" is the first word that God said to Adam in Genesis 3:17-19.

God declares the cause as being that Adam listened to the voice of his wife.

God LITERALLY stated that the CAUSE was Adam LISTENED to Adam's wife's voice; moveover, free will choice is NOT included as a CAUSE; therefore, the Apostle Paul's conveyance that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree (Romans 8:20) is in accord with the recorded Word of God in Genesis 3:17.

God declares the effect as being that the ground would be cursed because of Adam as well as to dust Adam would return.

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.
 
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post

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the Woman's voice was the cause for Adam's eating of the prohibited tree

1 Timothy 2:14 tells us Adam was not deceived.
that means his wife did not deceive him.
that means she did not coerce him to eat.

your interpretation is contradicting scripture.


Woman answers to God, confessing that she was deceived by the Serpent. God curses the serpent.
Adam answers back to God, confessing that his wife, whom God had made him caretaker of, had eaten, so he ate also.
God does not curse Woman. God does not curse Adam.

Adam & his wife answered God very well - in confession. God accepts their answers.
compare Cain's answer - Cain says, "i don't know" -- which is a lie. Cain says "am i my brother's keeper?" which is attacking God's question as unjust.
God curses Cain.

Woman answers well.
Adam answers well.
Cain answers wickedly.

God covers the shame of Adam & his wife.
God curses the Serpent and God curses Cain.

is this arbitrary? God is not unjust; His judgements are perfect and holy.
read the text. ask the obvious questions. find the answers. look for it testifying of Christ.
 

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Paul left no room for disputing to the timeframe for which "not willingly" applies, for Paul also wrote "we know that the whole creation groans and suffers the pains of childbirth together until now" (Romans 8:22), and the phrase "until now" is the timeframe's most recent limiting factor which memes that all times prior to "now" are included, so "the whole creation" includes the moment after God breathed into Adam's nostrils the breath of life (Genesis 2:7) until Adam ate of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil (Genesis 3:6); therefore, we can be certain that Paul includes the timeframe that Adam ate of the tree in the travailing/groaning because Paul wrote of all of this in the same passage, i.e. Romans 8:20-22.

Paul includes the "not willingly" (Romans 8:20-22) to apply to the time that Adam ate of the tree (Genesis 3:6).

you're contradicting scripture and accusing God of evil.
you're repeating "the lie" of Satan - just like the Israelites in the wilderness who said that God had brought them out of Egypt expressly in order to murder them, their children and their animals.
you say God created Adam expressly in order to murder him, without cause. you describe Him as sadistic & unjust.


For the Lord will not cast off forever.
Though He causes grief,
yet He will show compassion
according to the multitude of His mercies.
For He does not afflict willingly,
nor grieve the children of men.

(Lamentations 3:33)​
 

post

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dust you are,
and to dust you shall return.

(Genesis 3:19)​

Adam & his wife have eaten poison and are full of death.
God pronounces the repercussion of this to Adam, saying, he is dust, and he will return to dust.

And Adam called his wife’s name Eve, because she was the mother of all living.
(Genesis 3:20)​

Adam's response to this is to change his wife's name to "Eve" which means "life"
because she, who is dead, who is dust and will return to dust, would be the mother of all the living.
Adam who is dead calls his wife who is dead, "life" - saying all who live will come through her womb.

why does Adam do this?
is Adam contradicting God?


for Adam and his wife the LORD God made tunics of skin, and clothed them.
Then the LORD God said, “
Behold!! The man has become like one of Us, to know good from evil!"
(Genesis 3:21-22)​

God's response is to cover their shame, and to all the angels God says "Behold!!" and praises Adam.
Adam answered well.

who here has wisdom?
who can explain Adam's answer?
 

post

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God LITERALLY stated that the CAUSE was Adam LISTENED to Adam's wife's voice

that's nonsense, little bro.


the context here is a courtroom, not a laboratory.
just as God says to Satan, 'because you have done this' and pronounces His judgement,
when He says to Adam 'because you listened to the voice of your wife' it is not causal but evidentiary.
 

Kermos

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You are correct. I didn't quote scripture. There's a reason for that. My commentary was on your nonsense understanding of reality... My comments were not a biblical exegesis. They were the logical understanding of what you believe pertaining to the character of God. That you claim a righteous holy God deliberately instigated a rebellion against Himself by coercing Adam to rebel and sin. Thus you make God Himself a co conspirator in the rebellion. That kind of thinking is blasphemous.

You, Backlit, along with @Renniks who liked your post, have one big post based entirely on your thoughts without any scriptural support for free will for Adam; instead, you go on and on about your misunderstanding about who God is.

The two of you are doing exactly what the Apostle Paul wrote "You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who resists His will?" (Romans 9:19).

But, wait, there's more to what Paul wrote for people like you who answer back wickedly to the Word with "On the contrary, who are you, O man, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, “Why did you make me like this,” will it?" (Romans 9:20).

There's still more where Paul continues about God bringing glory to God "Or does not the potter have a right over the clay, to make from the same lump one vessel for honorable use and another for common use? What if God, although willing to demonstrate His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction? And He did so to make known the riches of His glory upon vessels of mercy, which He prepared beforehand for glory" (Romans 9:21-23).

Both of you think you save yourself by way of your "choice" of Jesus; however, your rejection of the Word "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) as well as "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation) is clearly evident; moreover, the more that you practice such lawlessness, the more you prove your stiffneckedness.

You add "choose" into the Word of God recorded here such as Genesis 2:16-17and there such as Genesis 3:6, and you add with impunity - for now anyway.

Back to your thoughts. It is written, "'For My thoughts are not your thoughts, Nor are your ways My ways,' declares the LORD. 'For [as] the heavens are higher than the earth, So are My ways higher than your ways And My thoughts than your thoughts.'" (Isaiah 55:8-9).

A word about adding to scripture as you have done. It is written "do not add to His words or He will reprove you, and you will be proved a liar" (Proverbs 30:6), and the above explanation of your thoughts shows where you added to scripture.

Of the new Jerusalem, the Apostle John wrote "nothing unclean, and no one who practices abomination and lying, shall ever come into it, but only those whose names are written in the Lamb's book of life" (Revelation 21:27) - notice that no one who practices lying gets in, and a human adding to scripture is the human lying.

Your free will assertion is referring to man attempting to override God's thoughts with man's thoughts, and that is evil.

Your adding to the Word of God is an arrogant prideful evil act against God by you.

Back to Paul's writing that shows Adam did not willingly eat of the tree "the creature was made subject to vanity, not willingly" (Romans 8:20, KJV),.

No one after Adam gets a free will.

The Word of God is good unto salvation (Romans 1:16).
 

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You, Backlit, along with @Renniks who liked your post, have one big post based entirely on your thoughts without any scriptural support for free will for Adam; instead, you go on and on about your misunderstanding about who God is.

The two of you are doing exactly what the Apostle Paul wrote "You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who resists His will?" (Romans 9:19).

But, wait, there's more to what Paul wrote for people like you who answer back wickedly to the Word with "On the contrary, who are you, O man, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, “Why did you make me like this,” will it?" (Romans 9:20).

There's still more where Paul continues about God bringing glory to God "Or does not the potter have a right over the clay, to make from the same lump one vessel for honorable use and another for common use? What if God, although willing to demonstrate His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction? And He did so to make known the riches of His glory upon vessels of mercy, which He prepared beforehand for glory" (Romans 9:21-23).

Both of you think you save yourself by way of your "choice" of Jesus; however, your rejection of the Word "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) as well as "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation) is clearly evident; moreover, the more that you practice such lawlessness, the more you prove your stiffneckedness.

You add "choose" into the Word of God recorded here such as Genesis 2:16-17and there such as Genesis 3:6, and you add with impunity - for now anyway.

Back to your thoughts. It is written, "'For My thoughts are not your thoughts, Nor are your ways My ways,' declares the LORD. 'For [as] the heavens are higher than the earth, So are My ways higher than your ways And My thoughts than your thoughts.'" (Isaiah 55:8-9).

A word about adding to scripture as you have done. It is written "do not add to His words or He will reprove you, and you will be proved a liar" (Proverbs 30:6), and the above explanation of your thoughts shows where you added to scripture.

Of the new Jerusalem, the Apostle John wrote "nothing unclean, and no one who practices abomination and lying, shall ever come into it, but only those whose names are written in the Lamb's book of life" (Revelation 21:27) - notice that no one who practices lying gets in, and a human adding to scripture is the human lying.

Your free will assertion is referring to man attempting to override God's thoughts with man's thoughts, and that is evil.

Your adding to the Word of God is an arrogant prideful evil act against God by you.

Back to Paul's writing that shows Adam did not willingly eat of the tree "the creature was made subject to vanity, not willingly" (Romans 8:20, KJV),.

No one after Adam gets a free will.

The Word of God is good unto salvation (Romans 1:16).

Why does dead Adam change his dead wife's name to "life"?

Do you have wisdom?
Does Adam?
 
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Your adding to the Word of God is an arrogant prideful evil act against God by you.

Could you please show me the verse that says there's no such thing as free will?
 

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Your adding to the Word of God is an arrogant prideful evil act against God by you.

If there is truly no free will, how can anyone make an independently 'prideful evil act against God'?

Doesn't your theology require that God Himself causes them to say such things?

So doesn't your theology say that you are the one blaspheming God by saying that someone has said something wrong, since they have no will of their own to say anything, but God causes all things?
Isn't the implication of your theology that any act of repentance is blasphemous?
 
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Adam did not willingly

Why did dead Adam change his dead wife's name to "life"?

Can't your hypercalvinism answer that simple, obvious question?
 

Brakelite

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You, Backlit, along with @Renniks who liked your post, have one big post based entirely on your thoughts without any scriptural support for free will for Adam; instead, you go on and on about your misunderstanding about who God is.

The two of you are doing exactly what the Apostle Paul wrote "You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who resists His will?" (Romans 9:19).

But, wait, there's more to what Paul wrote for people like you who answer back wickedly to the Word with "On the contrary, who are you, O man, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, “Why did you make me like this,” will it?" (Romans 9:20).

There's still more where Paul continues about God bringing glory to God "Or does not the potter have a right over the clay, to make from the same lump one vessel for honorable use and another for common use? What if God, although willing to demonstrate His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction? And He did so to make known the riches of His glory upon vessels of mercy, which He prepared beforehand for glory" (Romans 9:21-23).

Both of you think you save yourself by way of your "choice" of Jesus; however, your rejection of the Word "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) as well as "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation) is clearly evident; moreover, the more that you practice such lawlessness, the more you prove your stiffneckedness.

You add "choose" into the Word of God recorded here such as Genesis 2:16-17and there such as Genesis 3:6, and you add with impunity - for now anyway.

Back to your thoughts. It is written, "'For My thoughts are not your thoughts, Nor are your ways My ways,' declares the LORD. 'For [as] the heavens are higher than the earth, So are My ways higher than your ways And My thoughts than your thoughts.'" (Isaiah 55:8-9).

A word about adding to scripture as you have done. It is written "do not add to His words or He will reprove you, and you will be proved a liar" (Proverbs 30:6), and the above explanation of your thoughts shows where you added to scripture.

Of the new Jerusalem, the Apostle John wrote "nothing unclean, and no one who practices abomination and lying, shall ever come into it, but only those whose names are written in the Lamb's book of life" (Revelation 21:27) - notice that no one who practices lying gets in, and a human adding to scripture is the human lying.

Your free will assertion is referring to man attempting to override God's thoughts with man's thoughts, and that is evil.

Your adding to the Word of God is an arrogant prideful evil act against God by you.

Back to Paul's writing that shows Adam did not willingly eat of the tree "the creature was made subject to vanity, not willingly" (Romans 8:20, KJV),.

No one after Adam gets a free will.

The Word of God is good unto salvation (Romans 1:16).
Why are you rebuking me for doing something and thinking in a manner over which I have no control?
The very fact that you berate me for going against the will of God is testimony to how your own theory falls apart.
 
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MatthewG

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Was Adam imparted free will from the beginning of Creation?

The Word of God indicates no based upon both scriptural text and context.

The following is carefully presented proof establishing Adam was formed with intent not endowed with free will.

  1. God issued prophecy about man eating the fruit (Genesis 2:17)
    AT the time God commanded the man, Adam, not to eat of the tree
    AND the consequence of disobedience is declared - that is that death of the man would result in eating from the tree
    YET a command does not convey ability (see also God's Commands Distinguised From Man's Ability)
    BUT the language contains a prophetic construct indicating assurance of occurrence - "for in the day that you eat" - the "for" is promissory
    NOT a conditional logic construct such as "if in the day that you eat"
    IN fact, the English word "for" is translated from the Hebrew word כִּ֗י (ki)
    AND the Hebrew word כִּ֗י™ (ki) contains the meanings of these English words "that", "for", "when" (Strong's Hebrew: 3588. כִּ֗י (ki) -- that, for, when)
    THEREFORE the word "when" fits where the word "for" resides in Genesis 2:17
    THUS the phrase "when in the day that you eat" is an accurate translation for Genesis 2:17
    SO this confirms the promissory nature, the prophecy of man eating the fruit, with the word "for"/"when" in Genesis 2:17
    AND this imposes contextual certainty indicating God's foreknowledge over the matter described in Genesis 2:17
    SO there is no free will indicated for Adam
    AND the firm fact is established
    THAT God reigns in the affairs of man (Daniel 4:34-35)
  2. Attributes/Characteristics Compared And Contrasted
    1. Examining attribute as relating to the purported facility of free will in Adam
      WITH a targeted result of logical deductive reasoning leveraging compare and contrast of attributes/facilities
      SINCE Adam was made in the image according to the likeness of God (Genesis 1:26)
      THEN some persons of the creation (creatures) argue that specific facility was given to Adam
      IN particular God willpowering purported free will into man during the creation of Adam
      THEN Adam could not have used free will to perform evil against God
      BECAUSE God will not use willpower in order to perform evil against God's self (Psalm 5:4, Psalm 92:15, Deuteronomy 32:4)
      THEREFORE it follows that Man could not use free will in order to perform evil against God
      1. The logical extension of free will on this basis results in man possessing expanded facilities beyond God's facilities
      2. God is Creator; on the other hand, man is creature
      3. Largely, I use free will to mean man choosing toward God, emphatically Lord Jesus Christ.
      4. Scripture does not include the mention of endowing Adam with free will
      5. Man's free will is a precept of man (Matthew 15:9)
    2. Adam as part of God's Plan of Redemption through the Christ for mankind before the foundation of the world
      SINCE God saw creation was very good on the 6th Day (Genesis 1:31)
      AND God's Plan of Redemption through the Christ for mankind is good (Ephesians 1:1-14,Ephesians 2:13)
      THEN a free will Adam could not have been roaming the Garden of Eden with the ability to choose to obey God's command not to eat of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil (Genesis 2:17)
      SINCE the only command carrying a punishment was the prohibition upon Adam against eating of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil
      THUS a free will Adam could have disrupted God's Plan of Redemption through the Christ for mankind
      SO God could not conclude with certainty by declaring everything was good on the sixth day with a free will Adam in control roaming the Garden of Eden
      THEREFORE it follows that Adam could not be endowed with the attribute of free will
    3. The timeline of Adam knowing good and evil
      BEFORE Adam and Eve ate from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil
      THEN Adam and Eve knew not good and evil
      AFTER Adam and Eve ate from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil
      THEN Adam and Eve knew good and evil
      FOR the delineation is clarified when God said "Behold, the man has become like one of Us, knowing good and evil" (Genesis 3:22)
      YET based on the Word of God saying "has become" recorded in Genesis 3:22
      THEN Adam did not know good and evil before eating from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil
      SO Adam did not know good and evil when God issued the command "from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil you shall not eat, for in the day that you eat from it you will surely die!" (Genesis 2:17)
      THEREFORE at the time of eating, Adam listened and followed the last that he heard about the tree of the knowledge of good and evil
      WHICH Adam heard from Eve
      FOR God said "Because you have listened to the voice of your wife, and have eaten from the tree about which I commanded you, saying, 'You shall not eat from it'" (Genesis 3:17)
      SO Adam listened to Eve and Adam ate from the tree prior to knowing good and evil
      AND a person does good by obeying God; on the other hand, a person does evil by disobeying God
      SO free will choosing of good or choosing of evil is not the context
      AND action is the context
      SINCE good and evil are not known to Adam prior to eating from the tree of the knowledge of good and evil
      THEREFORE it follows that Adam was not endowed with the attribute of free will
    4. The attribute of "joining" - marriage
      1. Lord Jesus says a topically very profound statement of "from the beginning of creation, [God] made them male and female. For this reason a man shall leave his father and mother, and the two shall become one flesh; so they are no longer two, but one flesh. What therefore God has joined together let no man separate." (Mark 10:6-9)
      2. "God has joined together" is a clear reference by Jesus to Christ and the Bride of Christ
      3. "God has joined together" is a clear reference by Jesus to marriage between "male and female" (creatures both)
      4. "God has joined together" is a clear reference by Jesus to Adam and Eve, the man and the woman
      5. God does the joining, while, on the other hand, man and woman are only the joyful recipients
      6. The facility of "joining" is not attributed to man and/or woman
      7. The facility of "joining" is attributed to God

For expanded topic coverage, please see this integral essay Almighty God's Awesome Creation In Amazing Splendor (not a ChristianityBoard.com link),

If anyone venture a reply to this thread, I encourage diligent care for it is written "do not add to His words or He will reprove you, and you will be proved a liar" (Proverbs 30:6).

May the Lord abound mercy and understanding and strength and grace in we His own for the Day approaches rapidly!

He absolutely had freewill. Adam could have asked His wife where did you get that fruit from? Eve could have asked God about her meeting with the serpent. You can see choice all through Genesis 3, got to teach a lesson on it yesterday morning. Link below if anyone interested. God bless, thank you for the question.
 

Renniks

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The two of you are doing exactly what the Apostle Paul wrote "You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who resists His will?" (Romans 9:19).
But if I can not resist his will, then obviously God wants me to do what I'm doing. But I can resist. Because the next thing Paul says indicates we can talk back to God. Your theology doesn't allow that.

Paul wasn't saying we can not resist God's will. The mystery objector was saying that and Paul says he's wrong to talk back to God.
 

Kermos

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Here is a question:

Who is responsible for you grossly misunderstanding me?
Was it by your own will, or were you a helpless cog in God's grand scheme?

You failed to understand the context BEING ABOUT THE NAME OF ADAM'S WIFE in my response to your own question.

Adam did not state Woman (Genesis 2:23) was a name changed to a name of Eve (Genesis 3:20).
 

Kermos

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Not that what you think and see is what scriptures says.

If you cannot see the choice in the commandment in Gen.2:16-17, that is your problem, not mine. I am not adding to scriptures. You are just missing out and in denial. I would guess you would deny that man, even Jesus, have a will.

Consider this a simple commandment to you, love God with all your heart, mind, and soul. Do you see the word “choice” in there? Nope.

Do you want to obey that or do you want to not obey it? Do you have the will to obey it or do you not have the will to obey it?

Tong
R3794

The word "choose" is not in 'and commanded YHWH God to the man, saying "Of every tree in the garden to eat you will be eating, but of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, not eating from, when in the day you are to eat of it to die you will be dying"' (Genesis 2:16-17), so you are adding choice into the Word of God; furthermore, a command of God is obeyed or disobeyed, so an action occurs, not a choice without explicit expression in the command of God, but fruit occurs.

You guess wrong about "will" for Lord Jesus prayed "Father, if You are willing, remove this cup from Me; yet not My will, but Yours be done" (Luke 22:42).

Lord Jesus did NOT say a person chooses in "You shall love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind" (Matthew 22:37) for this is a command again just as Genesis 2:16-17 is a command.

Lord Jesus says "Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born again he cannot see the kingdom of God" (John 3:3), so a person cannot love God without a person being born again in the Spirit of God.

After a person is born again in the Spirit of God, then such a person has a new heart that loves God.

This very love is manifest as wrought in God for the Lord Jesus says "he who practices the truth comes to the Light, so that his deeds may be manifested as having been wrought in God" (John 3:21).

Blessed be the Name of the Lord Yeshua Who converts us children of God into children of God! He is merciful, and He is gracious!

You just added that Adam had a choice into the Word of God recorded in Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24.

Furthermore, you just subtracted the Apostle Paul's writing that Adam did not willingly eat of the tree because Paul conveyed that nothing in creation willingly subjected anyting in creation to futility with Paul's writing of "the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly" (Romans 8:20).

You proclaim "the word of you". For you adulterate the Word of God with "choose" such that it is no longer the Word of God.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree since Paul included all time prior to Paul's birth by his writing "until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.
 
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post

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You failed to understand the context BEING ABOUT THE NAME OF ADAM'S WIFE in my response to your own question.

Adam did not state Woman (Genesis 2:23) was a name changed to a name of Eve (Genesis 3:20).

i didn't *fail to understand the context* it was my own question. but you acted like i was saying Adam had two wives??


while Adam was alive, Adam called his wife Woman.
later, when Adam became full of death and his wife was full of death, immediately after God tells Adam he will die and is on his way to death, Adam called his wife "Eve" meaning "life"

why would he do that??
 
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Kermos

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But we can't do that unless God made us do that in your little world. The answer to Paul's question btw is " everyone " Everyone sins and so resists God's will.

No one, absolutely no one can resist God's will (Job 42:2).

The scriptural answer to Paul's question "For who resists His will?" (Romans 9:19) is no one.

Events that God wills certainly come to pass without exception (Daniel 4:35).

Sin is missing the mark, but you added to Paul's question in Romans 9:19 such that you convey "Who has sinned by rejecting God?".

"All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God" (Romans 3:23).

Yet no one can resist God's will (Job 42:3).

Paul continues on and clearly indicates that only people converted by God are saved.

See that your writing of "we can't do that unless God made us do that in your little world" has an equivalency with Paul's opening question which Paul attributes to the scoffer of God controlling salvation "Why does He still find fault?" (Romans 9:19).

Let's revisit Paul's writing since your thoughts to Paul's opening set of questions were deluded by your precepts of men.

You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who resists His will?” On the contrary, who are you, O man, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, “Why did you make me like this,” will it? Or does not the potter have a right over the clay, to make from the same lump one vessel for honorable use and another for common use? What if God, although willing to demonstrate His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction? And He did so to make known the riches of His glory upon vessels of mercy, which He prepared beforehand for glory (Romans 9:19-23).

Only God can save man from the wrath of God (John 3:3-8), so God controls salvation (Romans 9:23).

Man does not say yes resulting in salvation (John 15:16, John 15:19).

Man does not choose God resulting in salvation (John 15:16, John 15:19).

Man does not accept Jesus resulting in salvation (John 15:16, John 15:19).

God exclusively converts man resulting in salvation (Matthew 18:3).

There is no level that a person can choose Lord Jesus because He says "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) as well as "I chose you out of the world" (John 15:19, includes salvation) - Jesus, being God, did not provide any exception for choosing toward Jesus. Lord Jesus speaks to all believers in all time because He also said "I do not ask on behalf of these alone, but for those also who believe in Me through their word" (John 17:20)! All these words of Jesus are at the same supper! All glory is God's! With man, salvation is impossible (Matthew 19:25-26)! All glory in the salvation of man is God's (John 15:5, Isaiah 42:8, Psalm 3:8)!

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.
 
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Kermos

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Yes there is,
KJV Genesis 1:27
27 So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them.
Now it will be interesting to see you argue that God doesn't have free will.


Considering "Image Of God" (Genesis 1:27) Attributes/Characteristics Compared And Contrasted

  1. Examining attribute as relating to the purported facility of free will in Adam
    WITH a targeted result of logical deductive reasoning leveraging compare and contrast of attributes/facilities
    SINCE Adam was made in the image according to the likeness of God (Genesis 1:26)
    THEN some persons of the creation (creatures) argue that specific facility was given to Adam
    IN particular God willpowering purported free will into man during the creation of Adam
    THEN Adam could not have used free will to perform evil against God
    BECAUSE God will not use willpower in order to perform evil against God's self (Psalm 5:4, Psalm 92:15, Deuteronomy 32:4)
    THEREFORE it follows that Man could not use free will in order to perform evil against God
    1. The logical extension of free will on this basis results in man possessing expanded facilities beyond God's facilities
    2. God is Creator; on the other hand, man is creature
    3. Largely, I use free will to mean man choosing toward God, emphatically Lord Jesus Christ.
    4. Scripture does not include the mention of endowing Adam with free will
    5. Man's free will is a precept of man (Matthew 15:9)


You just added free will into the recorded words in Genesis 1:27 for free will is not there.

Furthermore, you just subtracted the Apostle Paul's writing that Adam did not willingly eat of the tree because Paul conveyed that nothing in creation willingly subjected anyting in creation to futility with Paul's writing of "the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly" (Romans 8:20).

You proclaim "the word of you". For you adulterate the Word of God with "choose" such that it is no longer the Word of God.

You think your word is so very important that you dictate to God as you add to and subtract from scripture.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree since Paul included all time prior to Paul's birth by his writing "until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.
 

Kermos

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The "mind of a babe" is the same thing as a "mind of an infant". For example, here are two English translations of the same verse, one uses "infants" while the other "babes":

Like newborn infants, long for the pure spiritual milk, that by it you may grow up into salvation (1 Peter 2:2, ESV)

As newborn babes, desire the sincere milk of the word, that ye may grow thereby (1 Peter 2:2, KJV)

Your spurious argument that "mind of a babe" differs from "mind of an infant" is moot.

You add freewill where freewill does not exist in "Out of the ground the LORDGod formed every beast of the field and every bird of the sky, and brought them to the man to see what he would call them; and whatever the man called a living creature, that was its name. The man gave names to all the cattle, and to the birds of the sky, and to every beast of the field, but for Adam there was not found a helper suitable for him" (Genesis 2:19-20).

You just added "choosing" when you wrote "Adam CHOOSING Names for the Animals" into the word recorded in Genesis 2:19-20.

The Hebrew word בָּחר (choose in English) is NOT in the word recorded in Genesis 2:19-20, so you are adding בָּחר (choose in English).

NO SCRIPTURE STATES ADAM HAD A FREEWILL.

YOU CANNOT PROVIDE A SCRIPTURE THAT STATES ADAM HAD A FREEWILL, SO YOU WICKEDLY ADD FREEWILL FOR ADAM INTO SCRIPTURE WHERE FREEWILL FOR ADAM DOES NOT EXIST.

ADAM NAMING THE BEASTS AND BIRDS DOES NOT INDICATE ABILITY TO CHOOSE GOD UNTO ETERNAL LIFE.

A PERSON SAVED FROM THE WRATH OF GOD DOES NOT ADD TO NOR SUBTRACT FROM THE SCRIPTURE.

Furthermore, you just subtracted the Apostle Paul's writing that Adam did not willingly eat of the tree because Paul conveyed that nothing in creation willingly subjected anyting in creation to futility with Paul's writing of "the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly" (Romans 8:20).

You think your word is so very important that you dictate to God as you add to and subtract from scripture.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree since Paul included all time prior to Paul's birth by his writing "until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.