Was Adam Imparted Free Will From The Beginning Of Creation?

The Apostle Paul compared and contrasted Adam to Jesus, so Paul presents similarities and differences of Adam and Jesus.

THE APOSTLE PAUL PORTRAYS ADAM AS A "TYPE" OF JESUS

Paul wrote "death reigned from Adam until Moses, even over those who had not sinned in the likeness of the offense of Adam, who is a type of Him who was to come" (Romans 5:14).

So, according to Paul, Adam is "a type of Him" with Him being Jesus.

Paul explained "type" with "one man" referring to Adam "just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned" (Romans 5:12).

So, according to Paul, "sin entered into the world and death through sin" through Adam.

And, that death through sin is not Adam loving God.

And, that death through sin is not what Jesus does.

Paul explained "type" with "One" referring to Jesus bringing life through His sacrifice for persons "who receive the abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness will reign in life through the One, Jesus Christ" (Romans 5:17).

See, Adam and death.

See, Jesus and life.

Paul compared "type" both Adam and Jesus as contributors of something to the world.

Paul contrasted "type" that Adam brought death yet Jesus brings life.

Paul compared and contrasted Adam and Jesus using "type" with "through one transgression there resulted condemnation to all men, even so through one act of righteousness there resulted justification of life" (Romans 5:18).

Paul's writing does not convey that Adam loved God.

PAUL PORTRAYS JESUS AS "THE LAST ADAM".

Paul wrote "thus it is written, 'The first man Adam became a living soul'; the last Adam into a life-giving spirit" (1 Corinthians 15:45).

Paul does another compare and contrast.

Behold the next verse "the spiritual is not first, but the natural; then the spiritual" (1 Corinthians 15:46).

So according to Paul the first man is the natural man, earthy and flesh (1 Corinthians 15:39).

And Paul wrote "a natural man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; and he cannot understand them, because they are spiritually appraised" (1 Corinthians 2:14).

See, Adam and flesh (natural man).

See, Jesus and spiritual.

Paul ascribing Jesus as "the last Adam" does not make out Jesus to be the Adam of the creation account in Genesis 1-3 nor does it make the Adam of the creation account in Genesis 1-3 to be Jesus.

Rather Paul is making a contradistinction between Adam and Jesus.

Paul conveys that because of the first man Adam all people are flesh as the default state for all mankind, yet the last Adam, Jesus, breaks the bonds of the flesh of man for Jesus is heavenly and spiritual.

As the last Adam sets persons of His choosing free from bondage, then these are no longer in the first man Adam, and here is the crux of that which Paul conveyed in the passage of 1 Corinthians 15:42-49.

THE FLESH MAN PRECEDES THE SPIRITUAL MAN

Every person starts out life as a slave to sin (Romans 6:20), so as a slave to sin a person has no means to change from being a slave to sin on their own (1 Corinthians 2:14).

A slave of sin is purchased solely by the Christ to be converted solely by Christ into a slave of Righteousness (Romans 6:18), and Christ is the Righteous Branch (Jeremiah 23 5).

Free will does not exist according to this Truth, that is Christ (John 14:6).

People do have a will; however, a person's will is subject to being a slave of sin, or a person's will is subject to being a slave of righteousness; moreover, a slave is not free, so a slave's will is bound to the slave's master; therefore, a slave has a bond-will.

Here is the above stated another way.

The first state of affairs for all man is to be a natural man for it is written of Adam "just as through one man sin entered into the world, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men, because all sinned" (Romans 5:12), and "a natural man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; and he cannot understand them, because they are spiritually appraised" (1 Corinthians 2:14).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.

Enoch111 said:

Almost 11,000 posts for a totally inconsequential matter! Even a child would know that Adam had total free will.

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So for you, the child defines salvation as opposed to the Word of God defining salvation.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree since Paul included all time prior to Paul's birth by his writing "until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.

post said:

false.

it confirms the existence of "will"

if i say "this is not wet" it is absolute nonsense if there is no such thing as "wet"

you're a big mess, dude.

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You erased these following two paragraphs from the post that God had me make to you, so here they are again (by the way, notice in the very next paragraph which is a copy and paste from my prior post in which I wrote "man does have a will" so this demonstrates the messiness of your writing).

The Apostle Paul wrote of man's will and man's work as the work of God in man with "it is God who is at work in you, both to will and to work for [His] good pleasure" (Philippians 2:13), so with Paul I say man does have a will (noun).

THE APOSTLE PAUL CONVEYED THAT MAN HAS A BOND-WILL, NOT A FREE-WILL, BUT A BOND-WILL IN PHILIPPIANS 2:13!

Your "false" defies logic because the phrase "not willingly" does not indicate that "willingly" exists, rather "not willingly" only indicates that the absence of willingly exists; therefore, you are adding "willingly" to the scripture in Romans 8:20.

I have been writing about man not being imparted a free-will based upon scripture containing no such impartation.

I have written man has a will, such as in As this post in this thread shows, Paul compared and contrasted Adam to Jesus, and the flesh man precedes the spiritual man for every person.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree since Paul included all time prior to Paul's birth by his writing "until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.

Finally, finally, finally, you post some scripture in this thread as support for your free will philosophy; however, it is not the creation account, but let's do talk (you do tend to disappear when presented with accurate scripture).

Enoch111 said:

That is ABSOLUTE BALONEY.

LEVITICUS 22: FREEWILL OFFERINGS ACCEPTED
18 Speak unto Aaron, and to his sons, and unto all the children of Israel, and say unto them, Whatsoever he be of the house of Israel, or of the strangers in Israel, that will offer his oblation for all his vows, and for all his freewill offerings, which they will offer unto the LORD for a burnt offering;
21 And whosoever offereth a sacrifice of peace offerings unto the LORD to accomplish his vow, or a freewill offering in beeves or sheep, it shall be perfect to be accepted; there shall be no blemish therein.
23 Either a bullock or a lamb that hath any thing superfluous or lacking in his parts, that mayest thou offer for a freewill offering; but for a vow it shall not be accepted.

These things ye shall do unto the LORD in your set feasts, beside your vows, and your freewill offerings, for your burnt offerings, and for your meat offerings, and for your drink offerings, and for your peace offerings. (Num 29:39)
And thither ye shall bring your burnt offerings, and your sacrifices, and your tithes, and heave offerings of your hand, and your vows, and your freewill offerings, and the firstlings of your herds and of your flocks: (Deut 12:6)
Thou mayest not eat within thy gates the tithe of thy corn, or of thy wine, or of thy oil, or the firstlings of thy herds or of thy flock, nor any of thy vows which thou vowest, nor thy freewill offerings, or heave offering of thine hand: (Deut 12:17)

There are several more passages which speak of freewill offerings.

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First, "freewill offering" is in the Old Testament, so this is not the New Testament. There are differences.

Second, as God's chosen people, the Israelites had instruction about the "freewill offering" in the Old Covenant.

Third, the definition behind "freewill offering" must be examined according the source word נְדָבָ֖ה in the Hebrew of the Old Testament. This word נְדָבָ֖ה (nedabah) has a Strong's number of 5071.

DEFINITION: from H5068; properly (abstractly) spontaneity, or (adjectively) spontaneous; also (concretely) a spontaneous or (by inference, in plural) abundant gift:-free(-will) offering, freely, plentiful, voluntary(-ily, offering), willing(-ly), offering) (this Strong's defintion obtained from BlueLetterBible.org 5071).

Fourth, the definition behind "freewill offering" must be examined according the source word αφαίρεμα in the Greek of the Old Testament in the Septuagint. This word αφαίρεμα does not appear in the New Testament, so it does not have a Strong's number, but it has been assigned a number of "850.4" in the Apostolic Bible Polyglot.

DEFINITION: That which is cut off as a choice part; a choice portion; a cut-away portion.

Fifth, it is written in the Old Testament "The Israelites, all the men and women, whose heart moved them to bring [material] for all the work, which YHWH had commanded through Moses to be done, brought a freewill offering to YHWH" (Exodus 35:29).

AND there is a Hebrew word for "choose", but it is not here, so it does not state "who chose to bring", yet it does state "whose heart moved them to bring"

AND this offering is for material for the work as opposed to choosing toward God

AND this is the first occurrence of "freewill offering" in the NASB

AND the people brought abundant offerings for it is written "They received from Moses all the contributions which the sons of Israel had brought to perform the work in the construction of the sanctuary. And they still [continued] bringing to him freewill offerings every morning. And all the skillful men who were performing all the work of the sanctuary came, each from the work which he was performing, and they said to Moses, 'The people are bringing much more than enough for the construction work which the LORD commanded [us] to perform.' So Moses issued a command, and a proclamation was circulated throughout the camp, saying, 'Let no man or woman any longer perform work for the contributions of the sanctuary.' Thus the people were restrained from bringing [any more]" (Exodus 36:3-6)

SO it is clear that the synonyms נְדָבָ֖ה (nedabah) in Hebrew and αφαίρεμα in Greek denote a heartfelt gratuitous offering.

Sixth, based upon Biblical usage neither of these words translate to "freewill" as in "freewill choice toward God":

• נְדָבָ֖ה (nedabah) in Hebrew
• αφαίρεμα in Greek

Seventh, based upon definitions, neither of these words translate to "freewill" as in "freewill choice toward God":

• נְדָבָ֖ה (nedabah) in Hebrew
• αφαίρεμα in Greek

Eighth, "freewill" is an inappropriate translation of נְדָבָ֖ה (nedabah) in Hebrew.

Nineth, based upon both Scriptural usage and definitions, both of these words translate to spontaneous heartfelt gratuitous premier portion offering:

• נְדָבָ֖ה (nedabah) in Hebrew
• αφαίρεμα in Greek

Jesus and the Apostles quoted out of the Septuagint as recorded in the New Testament.

The Septuagint uses the word αφαίρεμα which translates to "the choice portion" which references an offering.

The Brenton Septuagint Translation version of Exodus 35:29 reads as "And every man and woman whose mind inclined them to come in and do all the works as many as the Lord appointed them to do by Moses- they the children of Israel brought an offering to the Lord".

The Brenton Septuagint Translation version contains "an offering" with no mention of "freewill".


Return to main essay "Almighty God's Awesome Creation In Amazing Splendor"

The word "freewill" in "freewill offering" is an incorrect translation, so no scripture states that man was imparted a freewill.

Continued to post 651

Continued from post 650

Enoch111 said:

And in Ezra 7:12,13, Artaxerxes includes "freewill" in his decree: Artaxerxes, king of kings, unto Ezra the priest, a scribe of the law of the God of heaven, perfect peace, and at such a time. I make a decree, that all they of the people of Israel, and of his priests and Levites, in my realm, which are minded of their own freewill to go up to Jerusalem, go with thee.

The Hebrew word נְדַב nᵉdab means to volunteer or to offer freely. How would the Jews under Artaxerxes volunteer to go of their own free will to Jerusalem if there was no free will for them to exercise? And how would the Israelites offer freewill offerings if they could not offer freely by deliberate choice?

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That is pagan king Artaxerxes' decree (Ezra 7:12) in Ezra 7:13, and a pagan king has false god(s), so in your desperation for your so-called freewill you declare yourself an adherent of a pagan king's false god(s) theology since Ezra 7:13 is your proof text for man's freewill.

Almighty God, YHWH, does not issue the words of the decree in Ezra 7:13.

A prophet of Adonai YHWH does not declare the decree in Ezra 7:13 as the words of Almighty God.

Tbe word "freewill" in the KJV is "volunteer" in the NIV and "willing" in the NASB, so it is not a foregone conclusion that "freewill" is accurate in Ezra 7:13, but it matters little because the pagan king Artaxerxes was the author of the decree.

The decree is not God indicating that God imparted free will into man.

So, Ezra 7:13 fails as your proof for man's free will.

By the way, that is not choose God by man's free will in Ezra 7:13; although, that does not matter because that is a pagan king's decree.

No scripture states man was imparted a free will by God.

Enoch111 said:

This whole argument that there is no free will is not only absurd but contrary to Scripture. How could Joshua tell the Israelites to choose whom they would serve if there was no free will to make that choice?

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It is written "If it is disagreeable in your sight to serve the LORD, choose for yourselves today whom you will serve: whether the gods which your fathers served which were beyond the River, or the gods of the Amorites in whose land you are living; but as for me and my house, we will serve YHWH" (Joshua 24:15).

The "choose" in Joshua 24:15 applies to false gods only. The "as for me and my house, we will serve YHWH" in Joshua 24:15 is an imperative, NOT an interogative, NOT a clause with Joshua "choosing" God, NOT "as for me and my house, we will choose to serve YHWH", but specifically a declaration of action which is "serve".

YHWH is not mentioned by Joshua for the people to choose in Joshua 24:15, and this aligns up with the Lord Jesus Christ's words of "you did not choose Me, but I chose you" (John 15:16) as well as "I chose you out of the world" (John 15-19, includes salvation).

Joshua 24:15 is nothing about freewill (Largely, I use freewill to mean man choosing toward God, emphatically Lord Jesus Christ).

Every person starts out life as a slave to sin (Romans 6:20), so as a slave to sin a person has no means to change from being a slave to sin on their own (1 Corinthians 2:14).

A slave of sin is purchased solely by the Christ to be converted solely by Christ into a slave of Righteousness (Romans 6:18), and Christ is the Righteous Branch (Jeremiah 23 5).

Free will does not exist according to this Truth, that is Christ (John 14:6).

People do have a will; however, a person's will is subject to being a slave of sin, or a person's will is subject to being a slave of righteousness; moreover, a slave is not free, so a slave's will is bound to the slave's master; therefore, a slave has a bond-will.

Enoch111 said:

So not only is this teaching dangerous but it also perverts the Gospel of Christ (Mark 16:15,16).

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The one who has believed, as per Lord Jesus' words recorded in Mark 16:15-16, is the person God has done the work of God causing the person to believe in Jesus whom the Father has sent for the Christ says:

This is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He has sent (John 6:29).

This righteous belief declared by Jesus is a work of God, not a work of man, but a work of God.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam “not willingly” ate of the tree since Paul included all time prior to Paul’s birth by his writing “until now” (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.

Tong2020 said:

If they were, then you would be guilty of that too.

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You added to the Word of God as shown in this post as well as showing where you subtracted from scripture, so the accusations remain accurate.

I have not added to the Word of God nor have I subtracted from scripture in this thread, so the same cannot be said of me.

Tong2020 said:

<<<A command does not impart ability unless explicitly enunciated.>>>

Perhaps. However, that was evidently not the case with God’s command to Adam nor did Adam not have the ability to obey the command.

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Neither the ability to obey nor disobey was imparted to Adam in "Of every tree in the garden to eat you will be eating, but of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, not eating from, when in the day you are to eat of it to die you will be dying"' (Genesis 2:16-17),

God did not say "you have the ability to obey" nor did God say "you have the ability to choose to obey".

In your heart, you added "you have the ability to obey" into the Word of God where it does not exist, SO HERE IS AN EXAMPLE OF YOU ADDING TO THE WORD OF GOD.

Tong2020 said:

<<<No scripture states man has a free-will.>>>

And no scriptures states man has not a free will either.

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The absence of any scripture stating that man was imparted a free-will means that man does not have a freewill; therefore, since God does not bestow free will, then there is no freewill for man.

The only way you can produce free will in scripture is by you adding free will into scripture - at which point it would no longer be scripture.

Tong2020 said:

And no scriptures states that man has not the ability or has the ability to obey a command of God.

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Au contraire, here is scripture that states man has the ability to obey God exclusively by the Power of God "it is God who is at work in you, both to will and to work for [His] good pleasure" (Philippians 2:13).

There is no scripture that states man can obey God apart from God.

Here is some more wonderful Word of God showing man's inability to obey God without God imparting the ability to obey God:

I am the vine, you are the branches; he who abides in Me and I in him, he bears much fruit, for apart from Me you can do nothing (John 15:5).

Again, emphasizing the requirement of God indwelling man:

apart from Me you can do nothing (John 15:5).

And again:

apart from Me you can do nothing (John 15:5).

Respecting salvation, God is omnipotent, and man is impotent.

Tong2020 said:

Your own line of reasoning with the Genesis 2 passage refutes your take of Romans 8:20-22. There is not the words “Adam”, and “eat” found there as you would reason out the word “choice” is not in the Genesis 2 passage. There is the error of such reasoning and error of inconsistency. Not to mention that your take of Romans 8;20-22 is out of context.

Tong
R3885

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In "Adam ate not willingly of the tree", Paul covered "ate" which is an action in time of "until now" in Romans 8:20-22.

In "Adam ate not willingly of the tree", Paul covered "tree" which is a thing as part of "the whole creation" in Romans 8:20-22.

In "Adam ate not willingly of the tree", Paul covered "Adam" which is a person as part of "the whole creation" in Romans 8:20-22.

In "Adam ate not willingly of the tree", Paul covered "not willingly" in Romans 8:20-22.

Paul most certainly included "Adam ate not willingly of the tree" in Romans 8:20-22.

See that you subtract "ate" from "until now" in Romans 8:20-22.

See that you subtract "tree" from "the whole creation" in Romans 8:20-22.

See that you subtract "Adam" from "the whole creation" in Romans 8:20-22.

See that you subtract "not willingly" from Paul's application to "the whole creation" in Romans 8:20-22.

And, this, sir, is Romans 8:20-22 in context.

You proclaim "the word of you". For you adulterate the Word of God with "choose" such that it is no longer the Word of God.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree since Paul included all time prior to Paul's birth by his writing "until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.

Renniks said:

That's not Paul talking!
"ONE OF YOU WILL SAY TO ME."
The one asking the question"who resists his will" isn't Paul... It's the one Paul is arguing with.

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The Apostle Paul conveyed the message in Romans 9:19-23.

The "you" in Romans 9:19-20 is the person who rejects God by way of rejecting God's exclusive control of man's salvation; in other words, the "you" is the person that claims man has a free will.

Paul specifically wrote:

You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who resists His will?” (Romans 9:19)

Do not forget that it is written that no purpose of God's can be thwarted (Job 42:2), so scripture reveals that man cannot resist God's will, and Paul knows scripture.

Notice the "you" questioning why God still finds fault. Paul conveys that the "you" asks the fault question in a mocking manner, and the subsequent question about God's will continues with the "you" mocking God who is entirely in control of man's salvation according to Paul (Ephesians 2:8-10 for example).

The "you" mocking is certain because immediately after the question about God's will, Paul wrote:

On the contrary, who are you, O man, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, “Why did you make me like this,” will it? (Romans 9:20)

See the "On the contrary" which is indicative that the following statement of Paul refutes the mocking questions of the "you" about fault and about God's will (in Romans 9:19).

Paul continues immediately after "On the contrary" in Romans 9:20 showing that the thing molded cannot resist the will of the Molder.

The thing molded represents the "you".

The Molder represents God.

IN TRUTH, PAUL CONVEYS THAT MAN CANNOT RESIST GOD'S WILL (ROMANS 9:19-20)!

Behold the parallel of the defiant "you" against God (in Romans 9:19-20) to you @Renniks based upon the content of your post to which I am replying.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree since Paul included all time prior to Paul's birth by his writing "until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.

Renniks said:

No, the " you" is a rebellious Jew angry because God uses his rebellion to reach the gentiles.

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The Apostle Paul wrote "who are you, O man, who answers back" (Romans 9:20).

According to your heart, Paul wrote "who are you, O Jew, who answers back".

Your heart treasured scope is too narrow, so, in effect, you call the Apostle Paul a liar by telling the Apostle that he is wrong.

The Apostle Paul also wrote of the mocker "Why did you make me like this" (Romans 9:20).

According to your heart, Paul wrote "why are you using our Jewish rebellion to bring in the Gentiles".

Your heart treasured thoughts do not match Paul's writing, so you wickedly subtract from scripture and you evilly add to scripture.

Paul referred to individuals because he said "man" in Romans 9:20, not "Jew", not "nation", but specifically "man".

Since Paul wrote "man" in Romans 9:20, then he included Jew and Gentile alike.

Back to you where you subtracted "will" from Romans 9:19-23.

Paul specifically wrote:

You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who resists His will?” (Romans 9:19)

Behold you subtracted "will".

Do not forget that it is written that no purpose of God's can be thwarted (Job 42:2), so scripture reveals that man cannot resist God's will, and Paul knows scripture.

Notice the "you" questioning why God still finds fault. Paul conveys that the "you" asks the fault question in a mocking manner, and the subsequent question about God's will continues with the "you" mocking God who is entirely in control of man's salvation according to Paul (Ephesians 2:8-10 for example).

The "you" mocking is certain because immediately after the question about God's will, Paul wrote:

On the contrary, who are you, O man, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, “Why did you make me like this,” will it? (Romans 9:20)

See the "On the contrary" which is indicative that the following statement of Paul refutes the mocking questions of the "you" about fault and about God's will (in Romans 9:19).

Paul continues immediately after "On the contrary" in Romans 9:20 showing that the thing molded cannot resist the will of the Molder.

The thing molded represents the "you".

The Molder represents God.

IN TRUTH, PAUL CONVEYS THAT MAN CANNOT RESIST GOD'S WILL (ROMANS 9:19-20)!

IN TRUTH, PAUL WROTE "SAME LUMP", NOT ONE LUMP OF CLAY OF THE JEWS PLUS ONE LUMP OF CLAY OF THE GENTILES TO EQUAL TWO LUMPS, BUT HE WROTE THE POTTER RIGHTLY CONTROLS THE SAME LUMP.TO MOLD VESSELS OF WRATH AND VESSELS OF MERCY (ROMANS 9:19-20)!

IN TRUTH, PAUL CONVEYS THAT MAN'S (THING MOLDED) FREEWILL DOES NOTHING FOR SALVATION RATHER GOD (THE MOLDER) EXCLUSIVELY CONTROLS MAN'S SALVATION WITH:

You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who resists His will?” On the contrary, who are you, O man, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, “Why did you make me like this,” will it? Or does not the potter have a right over the clay, to make from the same lump one vessel for honorable use and another for common use? What if God, although willing to demonstrate His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction? And He did so to make known the riches of His glory upon vessels of mercy, which He prepared beforehand for glory (Romans 9:19-23)

Behold the parallel of the "you" (in Romans 9:19-20) to you.

You proclaim "the word of you". For you adulterate the Word of God with "choose" such that it is no longer the Word of God.

Still, no free will written in the creation account (Genesis 1:1-31 Genesis 2:1- 25 Genesis 3:1-24), with Paul in accord for he conveyed that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree since Paul included all time prior to Paul's birth by his writing "until now" (Romans 8:20-22).

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.

Iconoclast said:

from the 1689 confession of faith
Chapter 9: Of Free Will
1._____ God hath endued the will of man with that natural liberty and power of acting upon choice, that it is neither forced, nor by any necessity of nature determined to do good or evil.
( Matthew 17:12; James 1:14; Deuteronomy 30:19 )
2._____ Man, in his state of innocency, had freedom and power to will and to do that which was good and well-pleasing to God, but yet was unstable, so that he might fall from it.
( Ecclesiastes 7:29; Genesis 3:6 )

3._____ Man, by his fall into a state of sin, hath wholly lost all ability of will to any spiritual good accompanying salvation; so as a natural man, being altogether averse from that good, and dead in sin, is not able by his own strength to convert himself, or to prepare himself thereunto.
( Romans 5:6; Romans 8:7; Ephesians 2:1, 5; Titus 3:3-5; John 6:44 )

4._____ When God converts a sinner, and translates him into the state of grace, he freeth him from his natural bondage under sin, and by his grace alone enables him freely to will and to do that which is spiritually good; yet so as that by reason of his remaining corruptions, he doth not perfectly, nor only will, that which is good, but doth also will that which is evil.
( Colossians 1:13; John 8:36; Philippians 2:13; Romans 7:15, 18, 19, 21, 23 )

5._____ This will of man is made perfectly and immutably free to good alone in the state of glory only.
( Ephesians 4:13 )

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Are you in accord with the entirety of your post as true and accurate statements?

THE APOSTLE PAUL CONVEYED THAT ADAM NOT WILLINGLY ATE OF THE TREE

Despite the Creation account in Genesis 1-3 being silent about man's "will", there exists Apostolic teaching on the matter of man's "will" with regard to the creation account.
Adam did not exercise willpower to disobey God's command not to eat of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil (Genesis 2:16-17) for Paul wrote "the creation was subjected to futility, not willingly" (Romans 8:20, NASB); therefore, Adam did not make a choice, not a willing choice, to eat.

A "choice" by Adam is explicitly excluded by using scripture with scripture referencing, in fact, "the creature was made subject to vanity, not willingly" (Romans 8:20, KJV), so Adam acted not willingly but rather acted subject to vanity in his eating of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil.

"Not willingly" indicates "not choice".

Some people may claim that Paul was referring to a timeframe exclusively after what they call "the fall" (after Adam ate of the tree [Genesis 3:6]), but the continuity of the passage of Romans 8:20-22must be taken as a whole.

Paul left no room for disputing to the timeframe for which "not willingly" applies, for Paul also wrote "we know that the whole creation groans and suffers the pains of childbirth together until now" (Romans 8:22), and the phrase "until now" is the timeframe's most recent limiting factor which memes that all times prior to "now" are included, so "the whole creation" includes the moment after God breathed into Adam's nostrils the breath of life (Genesis 2:7) until Adam ate of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil (Genesis 3:6); therefore, we can be certain that Paul includes the timeframe that Adam ate of the tree in the travailing/groaning because Paul wrote of all of this in the same passage, i.e. Romans 8:20-22.

GOD DECLARED THE CAUSE OF ADAM EATING OF THE TREE BEING THAT ADAM LISTENED TO THE VOICE OF HIS WIFE

After Adam ate of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil (Genesis 3:6), to Adam, God said "Because you have listened to the voice of your wife, and have eaten from the tree about which I commanded you, saying, 'You shall not eat from it'; Cursed is the ground because of you; In toil you will eat of it All the days of your life. Both thorns and thistles it shall grow for you; And you will eat the plants of the field; By the sweat of your face You will eat bread, Till you return to the ground, Because from it you were taken; For you are dust, And to dust you shall return." (Genesis 3:17-19).

The word "because" inherently indicates cause in (Genesis 3:17), and the word "because" is the first word that God said to Adam in Genesis 3:17-19.

God declares the cause as being that Adam listened to the voice of his wife.

God LITERALLY stated that the CAUSE was Adam LISTENED to Adam's wife's voice; moveover, free will choice is NOT included as a CAUSE; therefore, the Apostle Paul's conveyance that Adam "not willingly" ate of the tree (Romans 8:20) is in accord with the recorded Word of God in Genesis 3:17.

God declares the effect as being that the ground would be cursed because of Adam as well as to dust Adam would return.

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.

CharismaticLady said:

Why do you believe Adam was not imparted a free-will? How could he have sinned; that is not God's will.

Click to expand...

Please go back to read the original post, and to read this post in this thread showing that God declares that Adam listened to the voice of his wife as the cause for Adam to eat of the tree (Genesis 3:17), and Paul conveyed that Adam did not willingly eat of the tree (Romans 8:20). These cover your questions.

Just as the original post shows richly in scripture, Adam was not imparted free will, and no man thereafter was imparted free will neither.