What was the Law that was Changed?

  • Welcome to Christian Forums, a Christian Forum that recognizes that all Christians are a work in progress.

    You will need to register to be able to join in fellowship with Christians all over the world.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

Eccl.12:13

New Member
Aug 28, 2010
558
10
0
What was the Law that was Changed?


"For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.”

There are many that still believe Paul speaks of God's laws as ONE! They think that whenever Paul mentions God's laws in his writings he is always talking about ALL approx. 613 laws.

Now if that were the case, if a law was changed it would have to mean ALL of the law’s of God were changed! So were they? And if so, How?

Let’s read what Paul said in the following verse and then ask ourselves a few questions; Did Paul really mean that ALL of God's laws were changed, OR was it just one out of the approx. 613 laws that was changed? Let's read...

"For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.” Heb.7:12


So…….was Paul speaking about (1) law that had to be changed, or did he mean that ALL of God’s laws HAD to be changed?

What law could Paul be speaking of that HAD to be changed!

Now if we find that Paul is speaking about just ONE certain law that was changed, then that would mean there were laws that Paul spoke of that were NOT changed.

And if that is the case, that would mean at times Paul speaks of at least TWO different laws in his writings; the ONE law that was changed and the OTHER laws that were NOT!

Paul, at times, would have to be talking about TWO different laws; plural.

So again my question to the forum is this:

What law is it that Paul said HAD TO BE CHANGED?


ALL, or just ONE?


"For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.”




.

 

Butch5

Butch5
Oct 24, 2009
1,146
32
48
62
Homer Ga.
What was the Law that was Changed?


"For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.”

There are many that still believe Paul speaks of God's laws as ONE! They think that whenever Paul mentions God's laws in his writings he is always talking about ALL approx. 613 laws.

Now if that were the case, if a law was changed it would have to mean ALL of the law’s of God were changed! So were they? And if so, How?

Let’s read what Paul said in the following verse and then ask ourselves a few questions; Did Paul really mean that ALL of God's laws were changed, OR was it just one out of the approx. 613 laws that was changed? Let's read...

"For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.” Heb.7:12


So…….was Paul speaking about (1) law that had to be changed, or did he mean that ALL of God’s laws HAD to be changed?

What law could Paul be speaking of that HAD to be changed!

Now if we find that Paul is speaking about just ONE certain law that was changed, then that would mean there were laws that Paul spoke of that were NOT changed.

And if that is the case, that would mean at times Paul speaks of at least TWO different laws in his writings; the ONE law that was changed and the OTHER laws that were NOT!

Paul, at times, would have to be talking about TWO different laws; plural.

So again my question to the forum is this:

What law is it that Paul said HAD TO BE CHANGED?


ALL, or just ONE?


"For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.”




.


It was the Mosaic law that was changed. When Christ came He gave new laws.
 

Eccl.12:13

New Member
Aug 28, 2010
558
10
0
It was the Mosaic law that was changed. When Christ came He gave new laws.

So you believe that ALL of God's laws were changed?

Let me ask you, what was changed about this law that Paul taught;

"Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that commiteth fornication sinneth against his own body."

What was changed about this law?



.

 

the stranger

New Member
Mar 12, 2011
134
14
0
49
Grand Rapids, MI
I have a great idea. Let us see if we can get as many threads on keeping the law (which no one could ever do) as there was laws. Perhaps in doing that, we are keeping another law of sorts, in remembering that no law could ever bring us life!




Galatians 3:21 (Contemporary English Version)

Slaves and Children
[sup]21[/sup]Does the Law disagree with God's promises? No, it doesn't! If any law could give life to us, we could become acceptable to God by obeying that law

:rolleyes:
 

Butch5

Butch5
Oct 24, 2009
1,146
32
48
62
Homer Ga.
So you believe that ALL of God's laws were changed?

Let me ask you, what was changed about this law that Paul taught;

"Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that commiteth fornication sinneth against his own body."

What was changed about this law?



.


What are you talking about? The Mosaic Law was put to and end Jesus came and gave a new law


Isaiah 42:1-9 ( KJV )
Behold my servant, whom I uphold; mine elect, in whom my soul delighteth; I have put my spirit upon him: he shall bring forth judgment to the Gentiles.
He shall not cry, nor lift up, nor cause his voice to be heard in the street.
A bruised reed shall he not break, and the smoking flax shall he not quench: he shall bring forth judgment unto truth.
He shall not fail nor be discouraged, till he have set judgment in the earth: and the isles shall wait for his law.
Thus saith God the LORD, he that created the heavens, and stretched them out; he that spread forth the earth, and that which cometh out of it; he that giveth breath unto the people upon it, and spirit to them that walk therein:
I the LORD have called thee in righteousness, and will hold thine hand, and will keep thee, and give thee for a covenant of the people, for a light of the Gentiles;
To open the blind eyes, to bring out the prisoners from the prison, and them that sit in darkness out of the prison house.
I am the LORD: that is my name: and my glory will I not give to another, neither my praise to graven images.
Behold, the former things are come to pass, and new things do I declare: before they spring forth I tell you of them.


Hebrews 7:11-12 ( KJV )
If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.

The Mosaic Law was under the Levitical priesthood, that priesthood was changed therefore the Law also changed.


Hebrews 7:14-18 ( KJV )
For it is evident that our Lord sprang out of Juda; of which tribe Moses spake nothing concerning priesthood.
And it is yet far more evident: for that after the similitude of Melchisedec there ariseth another priest,
Who is made, not after the law of a carnal commandment, but after the power of an endless life.
For he testifieth, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec.
For there is verily a disannulling of the commandment going before for the weakness and unprofitableness thereof.

This is the Mosaic Law, he clearly says there is a disannulling of the commandment going before.

Hebrews 8:9-13 ( KJV )
Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they continued not in my covenant, and I regarded them not, saith the Lord.
For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:
And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest.
For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more.
In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away.

The old law came to an end. Jesus brought a new law, much of which can be found in the Sermon on the Mount. You have heard it said, but I say unto you.

Isaiah spoke of this.

Isaiah 8:11-18 ( KJV )
For the LORD spake thus to me with a strong hand, and instructed me that I should not walk in the way of this people, saying,
Say ye not, A confederacy, to all them to whom this people shall say, A confederacy; neither fear ye their fear, nor be afraid.
Sanctify the LORD of hosts himself; and let him be your fear, and let him be your dread.
And he shall be for a sanctuary; but for a stone of stumbling and for a rock of offence to both the houses of Israel, for a gin and for a snare to the inhabitants of Jerusalem.
And many among them shall stumble, and fall, and be broken, and be snared, and be taken.
Bind up the testimony, seal the law among my disciples.
And I will wait upon the LORD, that hideth his face from the house of Jacob, and I will look for him.
Behold, I and the children whom the LORD hath given me are for signs and for wonders in Israel from the LORD of hosts, which dwelleth in mount Zion.
 

Duckybill

New Member
Feb 12, 2010
3,416
44
0
So you believe that ALL of God's laws were changed?

You totally twisted what he said.
Let me ask you, what was changed about this law that Paul taught;

"Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that commiteth fornication sinneth against his own body."

What was changed about this law?
I think you are intentionally ignoring the obvious truth. We are not under THE WORKS OF THE LAW. Nobody here has said it is not sin to commit fornication. Why do you keep beating this dead horse???

Galatians 3:10 (NKJV)
[sup]10 [/sup]For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse;
 

Eccl.12:13

New Member
Aug 28, 2010
558
10
0
What are you talking about? The Mosaic Law was put to and end Jesus came and gave a new law

What law was changed? Name it!



.

The Mosaic Law was under the Levitical priesthood, that priesthood was changed therefore the Law also changed.


Really? God's laws were UNDER the Levitical preisthood? Please show me that in God's Holy scriptures!


.
 

Butch5

Butch5
Oct 24, 2009
1,146
32
48
62
Homer Ga.
What law was changed? Name it!


.Are you serious? I 've named it several times. THE MOSAIC LAW




[
size="3"]Really? God's laws were UNDER the Levitical preisthood? Please show me that in God's Holy scriptures!


.[/size]

I just did in the last post.


Hebrews 7:11 ( KJV )
If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?
 

Eccl.12:13

New Member
Aug 28, 2010
558
10
0
.Are you serious? I 've named it several times. THE MOSAIC LAW

As I asked before, what was changed about the following law Paul said we are to keep?

"Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that commiteth fornication sinneth against his own body."

How did God change His commandment telling man not to fornicate?

And as far as your other verse;

"If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?"

What law did the people receive from the Levites?

And what about poor James? Did he not get the memo that he does not have to teach men to keep God's laws, as he is doing here in this verse.....

"But if ye have respect to persons, ye commit sin, and are convinced of the law as transgressors."




.

 

Butch5

Butch5
Oct 24, 2009
1,146
32
48
62
Homer Ga.
As I asked before, what was changed about the following law Paul said we are to keep?

"Flee fornication. Every sin that a man doeth is without the body; but he that commiteth fornication sinneth against his own body."


Paul gave that command under the New Covenant.

How did God change His commandment telling man not to fornicate?

He didn't, that command is contained in both Covenants. That however, doesn't change the fact that the Old covenant Came to an end. Therefore the commands did also. Many of those commands are re-instituted in the New Covenant


And as far as your other verse;

"If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?"

What law did the people receive from the Levites?

It doesn't say the received the law from the Levites. It says the Law was given under the Levitical priesthood. The Law was given to Moses who was under the Levitical priesthood.

And what about poor James? Did he not get the memo that he does not have to teach men to keep God's laws, as he is doing here in this verse.....

"But if ye have respect to persons, ye commit sin, and are convinced of the law as transgressors."

That statement doesn't say that James was teaching anyone to keep the Mosaic Law. He makes a statement and says if you have respect of persons you have transgressed the Law.

A question to ask is what law is James referring to? It seems you think he is referring to the Mosaic law, why? Just because he was addressing Jews does not necessitate that he is speaking of the Mosaic Law.

Look at the context of James' statement.

James 1:25-27 ( KJV )
But whoso looketh into the perfect law of liberty, and continueth therein, he being not a forgetful hearer, but a doer of the work, this man shall be blessed in his deed.
If any man among you seem to be religious, and bridleth not his tongue, but deceiveth his own heart, this man’s religion is vain.
Pure religion and undefiled before God and the Father is this, To visit the fatherless and widows in their affliction, and to keep himself unspotted from the world.

James 2:1-13 ( KJV )
My brethren, have not the faith of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Lord of glory, with respect of persons.
For if there come unto your assembly a man with a gold ring, in goodly apparel, and there come in also a poor man in vile raiment;
And ye have respect to him that weareth the gay clothing, and say unto him, Sit thou here in a good place; and say to the poor, Stand thou there, or sit here under my footstool:
Are ye not then partial in yourselves, and are become judges of evil thoughts?
Hearken, my beloved brethren, Hath not God chosen the poor of this world rich in faith, and heirs of the kingdom which he hath promised to them that love him?
But ye have despised the poor. Do not rich men oppress you, and draw you before the judgment seats?
Do not they blaspheme that worthy name by the which ye are called?
If ye fulfil the royal law according to the scripture, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself, ye do well:
But if ye have respect to persons, ye commit sin, and are convinced of the law as transgressors.
For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all.
For he that said, Do not commit adultery, said also, Do not kill. Now if thou commit no adultery, yet if thou kill, thou art become a transgressor of the law.
So speak ye, and so do, as they that shall be judged by the law of liberty.
For he shall have judgment without mercy, that hath showed no mercy; and mercy rejoiceth against judgment.

The context is the Law of Liberty not the Law of Moses.


.

 

Eccl.12:13

New Member
Aug 28, 2010
558
10
0
It was the Mosaic law that was changed. When Christ came He gave new laws.


Matt.5
[17] Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.
[18] For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
[19] Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.

Does not sound like Jesus came with new laws here.

Matt.19
[17] And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.
[18] He saith unto him, Which? Jesus said, Thou shalt do no murder, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness,
[19] Honour thy father and thy mother: and, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.

And it does not sould like Jesus came with anything new here either!

Still looking for these "new" laws you say Jesus came with?

He didn't, that command is contained in both Covenants. That however, doesn't change the fact that the Old covenant Came to an end. Therefore the commands did also. Many of those commands are re-instituted in the New Covenant

What was at fault was NOT God's laws. What was at fault was the PEOPLE that made the covenant. They broke the covenant, which is why there was a need to have another. Let's read it....

Heb.8
[7] For if that first covenant had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second.
[8] For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah:
[9] Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they continued not in my covenant, and I regarded them not, saith the Lord.

Paul tells us it was the nation of Israel that was at fault, NOT God's laws. Let's read what the new covenant consisted of...

[10] For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:

So the SAME laws that were in the first covenant was in the second.

So God's laws did not change.

Next you said....

It doesn't say the received the law from the Levites. It says the Law was given under the Levitical priesthood. The Law was given to Moses who was under the Levitical priesthood.

Now let's read what God's word says......

Heb.7
11] If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?

Who does Paul say the people received the law from? The Levitical Priesthood.

The question that should be asked is, "What law could the people have received from the Levitical priesthood? And yes, there was a law that the people received from the priesthood!

Do you know?

Next you said....

The Law was given to Moses who was under the Levitical priesthood.

Just how was Moses under the Levitical priesthood?

Next you said.....

The context is the Law of Liberty not the Law of Moses.



The Law of Liberty IS the law of Moses.....minus one little thing; the law that was changed!



.
 

Butch5

Butch5
Oct 24, 2009
1,146
32
48
62
Homer Ga.
Matt.5
[17] Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.
[18] For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled.
[19] Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.

Does not sound like Jesus came with new laws here.


Did Jesus fulfill that Law?

I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.

Matt.19
[17] And he said unto him, Why callest thou me good? there is none good but one, that is, God: but if thou wilt enter into life, keep the commandments.
[18] He saith unto him, Which? Jesus said, Thou shalt do no murder, Thou shalt not commit adultery, Thou shalt not steal, Thou shalt not bear false witness,
[19] Honour thy father and thy mother: and, Thou shalt love thy neighbour as thyself.

And it does not sound like Jesus came with anything new here either!

Was the New covenant in effect yet or was it necessary for Jesus to die first?



Still looking for these "new" laws you say Jesus came with?

read Mathew 5-7 and when you see "but I say unto you" you will be reading the new laws.



What was at fault was NOT God's laws. What was at fault was the PEOPLE that made the covenant. They broke the covenant, which is why there was a need to have another. Let's read it....

Heb.8
[7] For if that first covenant had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second.
[8] For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah:
[9] Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they continued not in my covenant, and I regarded them not, saith the Lord.

Paul tells us it was the nation of Israel that was at fault, NOT God's laws. Let's read what the new covenant consisted of...

[10] For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people:

So the SAME laws that were in the first covenant was in the second.

So God's laws did not change.

You've made an assumption here. How do you know that the laws on the heart are the same laws? You don't.



Now let's read what God's word says......

Heb.7
11] If therefore perfection were by the Levitical priesthood, (for under it the people received the law,) what further need was there that another priest should rise after the order of Melchisedec, and not be called after the order of Aaron?

Who does Paul say the people received the law from? The Levitical Priesthood.

The question that should be asked is, "What law could the people have received from the Levitical priesthood? And yes, there was a law that the people received from the priesthood!

Do you know?


He didn't say they receieved the law from the Levitical priesthood, he said they received it "Under" the Levitical priesthood.


Just how was Moses under the Levitical priesthood?

How was Moses under the Mosaic Law? He was the leader of the nation and God put the nation under the Levitcal priesthood.


The Law of Liberty IS the law of Moses.....minus one little thing; the law that was changed!

No, it's not. Christ's Law goes beyond the Mosaic Law
 

Duckybill

New Member
Feb 12, 2010
3,416
44
0

Does not sound like Jesus came with new laws here.

You just aren't listening.

Galatians 3:10 (NKJV)
[sup]10 [/sup]For as many as are of the works of the law are under the curse;

Galatians 5:1-4 (NKJV)
[sup]1 [/sup]Stand fast therefore in the liberty by which Christ has made us free, and do not be entangled again with a yoke of bondage. [sup]2 [/sup]Indeed I, Paul, say to you that if you become circumcised, Christ will profit you nothing. [sup]3 [/sup]And I testify again to every man who becomes circumcised that he is a debtor to keep the whole law. [sup]4 [/sup]You have become estranged from Christ, you who attempt to be justified by law; you have fallen from grace.

Romans 10:4 (NKJV)
[sup]4 [/sup]For Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to everyone who believes.

Hebrews 8:13 (NKJV)
[sup]13 [/sup]In that He says, "A new covenant," He has made the first obsolete.

ECC isn't going to listen to anyone. He believes his works will save him.
 

Eccl.12:13

New Member
Aug 28, 2010
558
10
0


Either you guys know what law was changed and you are just not saying it, which is sad, OR you really just do not know at all, which is worse!

No.....ALL of God's laws were NOT changed!

There was only ONE law that was changed and that law HAD to change. And it was changed by the only one that could do so; GOD!



.
 

Duckybill

New Member
Feb 12, 2010
3,416
44
0

Either you guys know what law was changed and you are just not saying it, which is sad, OR you really just do not know at all, which is worse!

No.....ALL of God's laws were NOT changed!

There was only ONE law that was changed and that law HAD to change. And it was changed by the only one that could do so; GOD!

You're still not listening ECC. No circumcision, Sabbath, dietary laws, animal sacrifice, death penalties in the NT. How is that only one? If you are going to ask questions you should read the answers, rather than asking over and over and over ...

 

martinlawrencescott

Servant Prince
Apr 6, 2011
344
12
0
35
Ventura, California
As far as I understand, the laws didn't change, but they were fulfilled in Christ. Christ met the requirements for sacrifice once and for all, and made attonement for both our sin, and our right to peace and fellowship with Himself. The laws were meant to show us we couldn't work enough or sacrifice enough to save any one person. One quick cleansing of guilt by the blood of animals wasn't enough to cure the scourge in the heart.

" Love the Lord your God with all your heart, mind, soul, and strength, and love your neigbor as yourself." The law is fulfilled when we do this, and we don't have the capability to do this without Christ.

The people of the old testament were under that same law. He showed that man wasn't made for the sabbath but that the sabbath was made for man. Meaning laws and regulations were for the benefit of keeping that main law. The law itself became an idol and a chain man placed upon himself, disguising their need for God, which was the opposite of what it was meant for. No one was ever saved by their works, but by faith in the Word of God which was in the beginning and became flesh, and it is by that hopeful expectation and in respect and dependency of God's character that anything we do fulfills any of what God requires.

There is now freedom in our obedience to Christ. Our obedience is no longer a chain wrapped around an unclean heart. But we place those chains in Christ's hands, and though he removes those chains we continue to serve him as though we were still chained. In service to Christ there truly is freedom from the world once our hearts are no longer chained to the necessity of obedience, but we are now a love sacrifice, and we offer up ourselves as living sacrifices out of love and not out of necessity just as Christ offered himself for us out of His love for us.he fulfilled our requirement, not His own, but placed our requirement upon himself and became what was necessary to be put to death so that our free will to love Christ is what he intended from the beginning. Until everything I want to do is everything God wants me to do and God's perfect will and my free will become the same, and I can truly experience freedom the way it was meant to be.
 

Eccl.12:13

New Member
Aug 28, 2010
558
10
0
As far as I understand, the laws didn't change, but they were fulfilled in Christ.

So what was Paul talking about when he said this;

"For the priesthood being changed, there is made of necessity a change also of the law.”

Paul tells us that it was a "NECESSITY" that this law was changed!



.