Where does a Christian live physically? does He lis in heavenly places physically or does he lie in this present evil (poneros) world? Once again the is a spatial or geographic connotation and not a relational connotation according to the definition of "lie".
Also why then do the older translators all write it as wickedness and it is only the more modern translators who translate it as wicked one.
Do you think they are more scholarly than the older scholars?
Here is an argument from a greek scholar:
"The second difficulty with 1 John 5:19 is with the phrase “the wicked one.” Technically, the word “one” in “wicked one” is not there. This is why the King James Version, for example, translates the word as “wickedness” rather than “the wicked one.” The Greek word is a substantival adjective, which means that it is an adjective used in the place of a noun. We do this in English, as with the Clint Eastwood movie, “The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly.”
So in 1 John 5:19, translators have to decide whether the substantive adjective (Gk., tō ponērō) is referring a thing (wickedness) or to a being (the wicked one). Those translators that opt for “a being” called “the wicked one” then add additional words to the verse to show how the world lies on the wicked one. They say it lies under “the power” or under “the sway” of the wicked one (NIV, NAS, NKJV). Those translations that opt for a thing, “wickedness,” need no additional words to explain John’s point (KJV, Rheims).".
Now the verses:
1 John 5:18-19
King James Version
18 We know that whosoever is born of God sinneth not; but he that is begotten of God keepeth himself, and that wicked one toucheth him not.
19 And we know that we are of God, and the whole world lieth in wickedness.
One cannot say in 18 that the wicked one doesn't touch (relationally) haptomai, and then in verse 19 John says the whole world lies (kemai) meaning in a relational way and then try to say the whole world doesn't mean the whole world!
NO NO NO! In verse 18, we have no relationship with Satan, but in verse 19 we lie or inhabit his domain or wickled ness for the whole world is plunged in wickedness.
The Apostle Paul wrote "the spiritual is not first, but the natural; then the spiritual" (1 Corinthians 15:46).
The Apostle Paul explains that the received Scripture is spiritual with "natural man does not receive the things of the Spirit of God, for they are foolishness to him; and he cannot understand them, because they are spiritually appraised" (1 Corinthians 2:14)
Again, as previously presented to you "Do not forget the Bible is a spiritual book about spiritual matters".
Since you quote your translator, then I take your translator's writings as if they are your writings.
The English word "lies" in 1 John 2:2 derives from the Greek word "κεῖται" (Strong's 2749 - keimai - to be laid, lie) which specifically means "lay", not the word "sway" as you wickedly try to minimize the spiritual meaning, but truly the word "lies".
Since "lies in" denotes to "abide in" and "reside in" and "touching" in 1 John 5:19, then the definition of "lies in" includes relational.
You claim "wicked one" is error, and as support you use 'We do this in English, as with the Clint Eastwood movie, “The Good, the Bad, and the Ugly.”', yet the title truly means “The Good One, the Bad One, and the Ugly One", so the noun "one" is implicit to the substantive adjective according to properly grammatical linguistics - both in the title and 1 John 5:19.
Let's drop the word "one" from 1 John 5:19 "the whole world lies in the evil" (1 John 5:19), and the resultant English adjective "evil" cognitively requires the implicit noun which is proper grammar; therefore, both the Greek and English can have the adjective only, but since English does not have a representation to indicate a singular adjective as Greek does, then the word "one" provides the specificity that English lacks.
The "evil one" is related to "the whole world" in "the whole world lies in the evil one" (1 John 5:19).
You failed to acknowledge "the correlation between 1 John 5:18 and Ephesians 2:3" as well as "the correlation between 1 John 5:19 and Ephesians 2:2" which were previously presented to you, and no apology, no humility, expressed from you.
You failed to acknowledge 'When you wrote "indirect object of lies", then you have linguistically illegally applied the object of poneros (evil one) to the verb "lies".' which were previously presented to you, and no apology, no humility, expressed from you.
John writes a spiritual point about the spiritually born of God Christian "the evil one does not touch him" (1 John 5:18) as well as John writes of the non-christians "the whole world lies in the evil one" (1 John 5:19).
John used compare and contrast between the evil one's relationship to the saved, that is not touching, contrasted against the evil one's relationship to the unsaved, that is touching (1 John 5:18-19).
A Christian lies in Christ - that is one with Lord Jesus - not serving two masters.
A non-christian lies in the evil one - that is outside of Christ - this is not the place of Christians.
Christ died exclusively for His chosen friends whom Christ protects from the evil one touching.
