Posted by Raeneske, 17 December 2012 - 03:08 PM
,
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ But I still need to know how you know that Homosexuality, is sinful.
[Homosexuality is] a sinful lust towards man of the same kind.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ Please clarify.
It’s like someone who wants to have sex with animals.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ I remember that, in grade school, we were assigned to compare and contrast things. I am certain that you & I can do the same now with gayness and bestiality – in nice, neat columns if you like. But let’s stick to the focus.
It’s a sinful lust, and that’s all there is to it.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ How do you know? (HDYK?)
God will save the homosexual from his sinful lust, if the homosexual wants to be freed from it. If they want to, they can have the grace of God. No one is saying it will happen immediately, but it will happen over time, they will slowly begin to notice their sinful lusts to vanish away, as they commit their works to the Lord.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ Very nice, but see my post # 1059: “the steps toward an ex-gay life in Christ, as I understand them, are:
1. Examine what, if anything, the Holy Spirit is using scripture to say about gayness.
2. Study the results of the above (step 1.) thoroughly to see how to apply it in one's life in practical terms.
3. Wait for the gay feelings to subside. Then wait for the same some more. Then wait for the same some more. Then wait for the same some more......
But, if that is correct, let's leave steps 2. & 3. aside for now. We have a lot of work to do on step 1. !”
You cannot systematically change the definitions of the words, when they are strictly pointing to each other.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ And at what point does scripture reveal them to be pointing to each other? Perhaps someone educated in ancient Greek can post something about the grammatical relationship of the two?
While you continually give different definitions from the word lust, you cannot separate it from the fact that they burned in lust towards each other.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ I take “burned” as a way of saying that their lust was extreme, which is outrageous (i.e. mind-blowing), since lust is already extreme by definition. So anyone lusting toward another person, as opposed toward something else, could be understood as sexual. But where does scripture say that that was what it was? (WDSST?)
There is no other way for it to be interpreted.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ (HDYK?)
What you are saying about the Holy Spirit is downright not true. The Holy Spirit did leave you without any doubt as to which kind of lust it is.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ Then where does scripture reveal it?
Lust to each other, how do we know it’s sexually? Men left the natural use of women, and burned in lust toward each other. Men stopped looking upon women, and looked to men and burned in their lust to men.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ In how many ways can a man look upon a woman? If a man is employed in a job where there are female coworkers, does he have to look upon them sexually, or are there other ways? And what about other situations, like casual encounters on a sidewalk? or at the store? or dropping the kids off at school? In any of these situations, can someone not want more than what God has in Mind for him/her, in any number of ways? Where is the (supposed) sexual aspect of the lust to which Paul was referring revealed?
If the dictionary has other definitions, shouldn’t I expect some kind of indication in scripture that points to one or the other (assuming that the meaning of the words translated “lust” are not to be taken as general references – to all kinds of desires, but taken too far)?
It has nothing to do with FEM or the economy. Not a single thing. The Holy Spirit made it very clear.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ HDYK?
You also talk about cherry-picking. What God showed in the Old Testament did not change about homosexuality today.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ HDYK?
As a matter of fact, He showed that in Romans His feelings upon homosexuality is the same. It is a vile lust, unclean, sinful. While God showed it was indeed an abomination in the OT, he showed again His hot displeasure for it in the New Testament.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ So we have a set of three ideas: 1. The to’ebah of the Hebrew Scriptures, 2.
The orexei of Paul’s Letter to the Romans, and 3. “modern” gayness (which some say does not change). How does scripture reveal the three of them to be connected?
The Lord does not change.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ How does the nature of God relate to what God wants us to do?
What He said sorely displeased Him before, He showed in the New Testament still sorely displeases Him.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ WDSST?
It is an abomination.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ Gayness is an abomination? HDYK?
If the context of the passage leads you to believe anything else, you have been clearly lied to.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ Here we have a pretty picture. 1. Does the context, or, for that matter, the bible as a whole, “say” anything? The bible is an inanimate object! Or, by extension, it is a phenomenon in which humans use the same inanimate object. But it is God Who actively speaks through the bible. C’mon, you know this! 2. If someone has lied to me about scripture, surely it is time to reference 2 Tim 3: 16- 17 and point out where scripture says what you say it says. If you mean that humans in the lgbtqa community have lied to me, well, that is possible – every human being is subject to error, sin, deception, etc. This, in turn is why I keep asking things like WDSST? and HDYK? Of course I can be mistaken – so can you. Show me how your understanding is derived from scripture, then we will bypass human error.
Now, as people open up your understanding of what that passage truly means, God is looking for you to acknowledge the fact that that is what it means.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ “the fact that what is what it means?” that human understandings (presented here or elsewhere) are what scripture means? or that God’s Truth, whether I understand it clearly or not, is what it means? I implicitly trust Christ my Savior to use scripture to reveal to me (& everyone else) the truth – before I understand it. I can trust Him to take my limited understanding of any scripture – in Romans 1, or in Nahum, or wherever – and show me what I need to know.
I’m not asking you to repent in front of me, I am not God.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ TY.
I am saying, scripture oh so clearly points to it being a sexual lust, and not any other kind of lust, by the simple use of a MAN LEAVING WOMEN AS A NATURAL USE to LUSTING AFTER EACH OTHER. There is no other definition even implied here. Excuse my all caps, I am just using the greatest emphasis possible.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ I am seeing a disturbing trend here: You (& others on this board) make a statement; I ask a question about it, usually referencing scripture; you respond, not by answering, but by repeating the statement, changing the subject, or asking general questions. All of this points to an apparent need on your part for me to believe what you say, not because you can point out how you (or any human being) derived your understanding from scripture, but because you are somehow sure that it is true. Let's look at II Tim 3: 16- 17: "All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, so that someone of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work."
If you consider yourself to be teaching me, rebuking me, correcting me, or training me in righteousness, why are making it seem as if your understanding comes from anywhere but scripture? And if you are doing anything else but these four, what is it?
Let digress a moment: I understand the discernment of God's Will in terms of the Wesleyan quadrilateral: The four main means of discerning the Will of God are: 1. scripture, 2. tradition, 3. personal experience, and 4. reason (logic). (Of course, I would tend to emphasize scripture, but the other three are still in the picture.) So if we read Exodus 20: 15, we can take that as the major premise; understand that, by definition, shoplifting is a form of theft, and take that as the minor premise; and reach the conclusion quite easily that shoplifting is sinful. When I ask "HDYK?" or "WDSST?," (see above) I am asking for the grounding of the (supposed) truth of gayness being sinful. If the grounding is in nothing but the sinking sand of human thought, well, there we are. But, otherwise, perhaps the Holy Spirit will lead you answer some of my questions.
,
The fact that God loves us all, did not stop Him from destroying Sodom and Gomorrah, and did not stop Him from giving people up to their unclean lusts, and will not stop Him from destroying those disobedient ones at the end of the 1000 years. Homosexuality, is sinful…The fact that God loves us all, did not stop Him from destroying Sodom and Gomorrah, and did not stop Him from giving people up to their unclean lusts, and will not stop Him from destroying those disobedient ones at the end of the 1000 years. Homosexuality, is sinful, it’s a sinful lust towards man of the same kind. It’s like someone who wants to have sex with animals. It’s a sinful lust, and that’s all there is to it. God will save the homosexual from his sinful lust, if the homosexual wants to be freed from it. If they want to, they can have the grace of God. No one is saying it will happen immediately, but it will happen over time, they will slowly begin to notice their sinful lusts to vanish away, as they commit their works to the Lord.
You cannot systematically change the definitions of the words, when they are strictly pointing to each other. While you continually give different definitions from the word lust, you cannot separate it from the fact that they burned in lust towards each other. There is no other way for it to be interpreted. What you are saying about the Holy Spirit is downright not true. The Holy Spirit did leave you without any doubt as to which kind of lust it is. Lust to each other, how do we know it’s sexually? Men left the natural use of women, and burned in lust toward each other. Men stopped looking upon women, and looked to men and burned in their lust to men. It has nothing to do with FEM or the economy. Not a single thing. The Holy Spirit made it very clear.
You also talk about cherry-picking. What God showed in the Old Testament did not change about homosexuality today. As a matter of fact, He showed that in Romans His feelings upon homosexuality is the same. It is a vile lust, unclean, sinful. While God showed it was indeed an abomination in the OT, he showed again His hot displeasure for it in the New Testament. The Lord does not change. What He said sorely displeased Him before, He showed in the New Testament still sorely displeases Him. It is an abomination.
If the context of the passage leads you to believe anything else, you have been clearly lied to. Now, as people open up your understanding of what that passage truly means, God is looking for you to acknowledge the fact that that is what it means. I’m not asking you to repent in front of me, I am not God. I am saying, scripture oh so clearly points to it being a sexual lust, and not any other kind of lust, by the simple use of a MAN LEAVING WOMEN AS A NATURAL USE to LUSTING AFTER EACH OTHER. There is no other definition even implied here. Excuse my all caps, I am just using the greatest emphasis possible.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ But I still need to know how you know that Homosexuality, is sinful.
[Homosexuality is] a sinful lust towards man of the same kind.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ Please clarify.
It’s like someone who wants to have sex with animals.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ I remember that, in grade school, we were assigned to compare and contrast things. I am certain that you & I can do the same now with gayness and bestiality – in nice, neat columns if you like. But let’s stick to the focus.
It’s a sinful lust, and that’s all there is to it.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ How do you know? (HDYK?)
God will save the homosexual from his sinful lust, if the homosexual wants to be freed from it. If they want to, they can have the grace of God. No one is saying it will happen immediately, but it will happen over time, they will slowly begin to notice their sinful lusts to vanish away, as they commit their works to the Lord.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ Very nice, but see my post # 1059: “the steps toward an ex-gay life in Christ, as I understand them, are:
1. Examine what, if anything, the Holy Spirit is using scripture to say about gayness.
2. Study the results of the above (step 1.) thoroughly to see how to apply it in one's life in practical terms.
3. Wait for the gay feelings to subside. Then wait for the same some more. Then wait for the same some more. Then wait for the same some more......
But, if that is correct, let's leave steps 2. & 3. aside for now. We have a lot of work to do on step 1. !”
You cannot systematically change the definitions of the words, when they are strictly pointing to each other.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ And at what point does scripture reveal them to be pointing to each other? Perhaps someone educated in ancient Greek can post something about the grammatical relationship of the two?
While you continually give different definitions from the word lust, you cannot separate it from the fact that they burned in lust towards each other.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ I take “burned” as a way of saying that their lust was extreme, which is outrageous (i.e. mind-blowing), since lust is already extreme by definition. So anyone lusting toward another person, as opposed toward something else, could be understood as sexual. But where does scripture say that that was what it was? (WDSST?)
There is no other way for it to be interpreted.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ (HDYK?)
What you are saying about the Holy Spirit is downright not true. The Holy Spirit did leave you without any doubt as to which kind of lust it is.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ Then where does scripture reveal it?
Lust to each other, how do we know it’s sexually? Men left the natural use of women, and burned in lust toward each other. Men stopped looking upon women, and looked to men and burned in their lust to men.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ In how many ways can a man look upon a woman? If a man is employed in a job where there are female coworkers, does he have to look upon them sexually, or are there other ways? And what about other situations, like casual encounters on a sidewalk? or at the store? or dropping the kids off at school? In any of these situations, can someone not want more than what God has in Mind for him/her, in any number of ways? Where is the (supposed) sexual aspect of the lust to which Paul was referring revealed?
If the dictionary has other definitions, shouldn’t I expect some kind of indication in scripture that points to one or the other (assuming that the meaning of the words translated “lust” are not to be taken as general references – to all kinds of desires, but taken too far)?
It has nothing to do with FEM or the economy. Not a single thing. The Holy Spirit made it very clear.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ HDYK?
You also talk about cherry-picking. What God showed in the Old Testament did not change about homosexuality today.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ HDYK?
As a matter of fact, He showed that in Romans His feelings upon homosexuality is the same. It is a vile lust, unclean, sinful. While God showed it was indeed an abomination in the OT, he showed again His hot displeasure for it in the New Testament.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ So we have a set of three ideas: 1. The to’ebah of the Hebrew Scriptures, 2.
The orexei of Paul’s Letter to the Romans, and 3. “modern” gayness (which some say does not change). How does scripture reveal the three of them to be connected?
The Lord does not change.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ How does the nature of God relate to what God wants us to do?
What He said sorely displeased Him before, He showed in the New Testament still sorely displeases Him.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ WDSST?
It is an abomination.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ Gayness is an abomination? HDYK?
If the context of the passage leads you to believe anything else, you have been clearly lied to.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ Here we have a pretty picture. 1. Does the context, or, for that matter, the bible as a whole, “say” anything? The bible is an inanimate object! Or, by extension, it is a phenomenon in which humans use the same inanimate object. But it is God Who actively speaks through the bible. C’mon, you know this! 2. If someone has lied to me about scripture, surely it is time to reference 2 Tim 3: 16- 17 and point out where scripture says what you say it says. If you mean that humans in the lgbtqa community have lied to me, well, that is possible – every human being is subject to error, sin, deception, etc. This, in turn is why I keep asking things like WDSST? and HDYK? Of course I can be mistaken – so can you. Show me how your understanding is derived from scripture, then we will bypass human error.
Now, as people open up your understanding of what that passage truly means, God is looking for you to acknowledge the fact that that is what it means.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ “the fact that what is what it means?” that human understandings (presented here or elsewhere) are what scripture means? or that God’s Truth, whether I understand it clearly or not, is what it means? I implicitly trust Christ my Savior to use scripture to reveal to me (& everyone else) the truth – before I understand it. I can trust Him to take my limited understanding of any scripture – in Romans 1, or in Nahum, or wherever – and show me what I need to know.
I’m not asking you to repent in front of me, I am not God.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ TY.
I am saying, scripture oh so clearly points to it being a sexual lust, and not any other kind of lust, by the simple use of a MAN LEAVING WOMEN AS A NATURAL USE to LUSTING AFTER EACH OTHER. There is no other definition even implied here. Excuse my all caps, I am just using the greatest emphasis possible.
_/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ _/ I am seeing a disturbing trend here: You (& others on this board) make a statement; I ask a question about it, usually referencing scripture; you respond, not by answering, but by repeating the statement, changing the subject, or asking general questions. All of this points to an apparent need on your part for me to believe what you say, not because you can point out how you (or any human being) derived your understanding from scripture, but because you are somehow sure that it is true. Let's look at II Tim 3: 16- 17: "All Scripture is God-breathed and is useful for teaching, rebuking, correcting and training in righteousness, so that someone of God may be thoroughly equipped for every good work."
If you consider yourself to be teaching me, rebuking me, correcting me, or training me in righteousness, why are making it seem as if your understanding comes from anywhere but scripture? And if you are doing anything else but these four, what is it?
Let digress a moment: I understand the discernment of God's Will in terms of the Wesleyan quadrilateral: The four main means of discerning the Will of God are: 1. scripture, 2. tradition, 3. personal experience, and 4. reason (logic). (Of course, I would tend to emphasize scripture, but the other three are still in the picture.) So if we read Exodus 20: 15, we can take that as the major premise; understand that, by definition, shoplifting is a form of theft, and take that as the minor premise; and reach the conclusion quite easily that shoplifting is sinful. When I ask "HDYK?" or "WDSST?," (see above) I am asking for the grounding of the (supposed) truth of gayness being sinful. If the grounding is in nothing but the sinking sand of human thought, well, there we are. But, otherwise, perhaps the Holy Spirit will lead you answer some of my questions.