Romans(3:10) Where is the written word of Paul 'Apostle' ?

Protecting me God from the evil that You already cursed.In the name of Allah(God), Most Gracious, Most Merciful ray3: In this first discuss, I whould to start ask to all christian about the meaning in the Romans 3:10 as it write aboveKJV:Romans 3:10 As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not oneThe Question :1. What is the meaning of the written in the Roman 3:10.2. Is there some one could help me finding where the text that Paul 'Apostle' has already made in the Romans 3:10For the answer, i should say thank you .Best regards,Ricky WisnadriGod Knows Best :angel1: .

Protecting me Allah(God) from the evil that You already cursed.In the name of Allah(God), Most Gracious, Most Merciful ray3: (kriss;11386)
I hope I am understaning your question right There is no man that is without sin. We must ask for forgivness for our sins It is thru our belief in Jesus Christ who died for all our sins that God can grant us forgivness of our sins. Rom.3:23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God; Rom 3:24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus: Rom 3:25 Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God; Rom 3:26 To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.
Dear kriss,Thank you for answering my question about the meaning on the Romans 3:10, yes indeed that was one of the question that I ask.However can you help me on the 2 other question that I numbering in my first post

.Best regards,Ricky WisnadriGod Knows Best

Protecting me Allah(God) from the evil(satan) that You already cursed.In the name of Allah(God), Most Gracious, Most MercifulFirstly i whould like to say thank you for everyone who were helping me on answering my question .(B'midbar;11387)
Peace, Ricky W.Perhaps you are asking for another verse from the bible on this topic.
So is it for my first numbering question about the written ?If that so, may I conclude that every time we see the word written in the bible(NT) that mean it also says/written exactly(precisely) in somewhere else in the bible (OT), am I correct B'midbar ?(B'midbar;11387)
Here are some verses from Psalm 14salm 14 is short, so it is easy to read the whole thing, to see what else it says. It is only a few more verses.
1 ...The fool has said in his heart, "There is no God." They are corrupt, they have committed abominable deeds; There is no one who does good. 2 The LORD has looked down from heaven upon the sons of men To see if there are any who understand, Who seek after God. 3 They have all turned aside, together they have become corrupt; There is no one who does good, not even one.
Please forgive me B'midbar, but i haven't see the text that Paul 'Apostle' said at Romans 3:10 in the Psalm 14 1-3.Best regards,Ricky WisnadriAllah(God) Knows Best

Protecting me Allah(God), from the evil(satan) that You already cursed.In the name of Allah(God), Most Gracious, Most Merciful("RND")
The meaning is that ALL have sinned and come short of the glory of God. No one is righteous.
Actually this already been explain before by kriss. However in the first numbering question you should refer to B'midbar answer before. Actually In the first numbering question I was trying to ask about the definition of the word written. Perhaps i was wrong in wrote the question. So number 1 question was refer to what the word written mean in the Romans 3:10. Thats what i want to ask to all of you . However thank you for your kindness for spend your time to give me an understanding of it .("RND")
Paul was paraphrasing from the Old Testament:Isaiah 41:26Who hath declared from the beginning, that we may know? and beforetime, that we may say, He is righteous? yea, there is none that sheweth, yea, there is none that declareth, yea, there is none that heareth your words.Isaiah 57:1The righteous perisheth, and no man layeth it to heart: and merciful men are taken away, none considering that the righteous is taken away from the evil to come.Isaiah 64:6But we are all as an unclean thing, and all our righteousnesses are as filthy rags; and we all do fade as a leaf; and our iniquities, like the wind, have taken us away.
Once more thanks for your time to answer my question .However I was still wonder, is there the similliar word that Paul 'Apostle' has said in the Romans 3:10 on the OT :?: Because from my understanding on the word written in bible, usually always refers precisely or have the same written on the OT. But if i read in the bible according to my understandin on the word written, i haven't see what the Paul said in the Roman 3:10.So in this case, i need to know what is the definition of the word "written".Best regards,Ricky WisnadriGod(Allah) Knows Best

Protecting me Allah(God), from the evil(satan) that You already cursed.In the name of Allah(God), Most Gracious, Most Merciful("B'midbar")
First, I hope what follows will offer a more precise explanation of my choice to direct you toward Psalm 14:1-3.Under inspiration, Paul is trying to teach us a concept. From Romans 3:10-18 he is explaining and pulling forth images from the OT to help us. As another poster suggested, Paul may choose to paraphrase in order to assist us to see the meaning in the context of what he wishes to explain there in Romans. Paul uses the words like “righteous” and “righteousness” several times in the book of Romans. He is trying to help us understand words like these. The list of images pulled from the OT is designed to help us with that, among other things.
In my opinion (CMIIWW), if Paul the 'Apostle' was trying to qouting OT (by using the word of "written") i think he is not in the condition to explain on what he trying to quote but it should be only quoting from what it already exist nothing more and nothing less.My opinion was base on how Jesus (Pbuh) in using the word of written for quoting purpose below :Matthew 44:4 But he answered and said, It is written, Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.In that sentences Jesus was trying to quote precise the sentences atDeuteronomy 88:3 And he humbled thee, and suffered thee to hunger, and fed thee with manna, which thou knewest not, neither did thy fathers know; that he might make thee know that man doth not live by bread only, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of the LORD doth man live("B'midbar")
If you look ahead a bit, past Romans 3:10, and go on to 11 and 12, you will see that I have given you a location in the OT that matches what Paul is saying. Perhaps you can see how Romans 3:11 is saying
Romans 3:11 there is none who understands, there is none who seeks for God;As a comparison in OT says salms 14:2 The LORD has looked down from heaven upon the sons of men To see if there are any who understand, Who seek after God.In my understanding, what the Paul said in Romans 3:11 is more like an explanation than saying what it's been written on the OT.If you allow me to describe what is in Roman 3:11 anda Psalm 14:2 according to my honest mean. I have this conclusion base on the meaning of the contents :1. Romans 3:11 Paul Apostle was already judging people by his statement. But if we see at Psalms 14:2 God doesn't do such of thing.2. If we see once more at Psalms 14:2 we will see that, there is a possibility for human being to seek God and try to understand it, rather than what Paul 'Apostle' said.And in the real world, yes indeed there are alot of human who was try to understand God, and seek for God. I believe you one of the man that looking for understand God and seek God, before you found God, am I right B'midbar ?So how do you thing B'midbar about my opinion above.And back to the first question of mine in Romans 3:10.In Romans 3:10 it says about "righteousness" but if we see at Psalms 14:1 it says about "goodness" and "badness"I think what is written in Psalms is not what Paul 'Apostle' said at Romans 3:10.It also has a different meaning on the word and the meaning of the content.Is it wrong my analyze B'midbar ?Best regards,Ricky WisnadriGod(Allah) Knows Best

Protecting me Allah(God), from the evil(satan) that You already cursed.In the name of Allah(God), Most Gracious, Most Merciful(betchevy;11430)
Ricky the translators are the one who you need to berate, not Paul..
Please don't misunderstanding, i'm not in the position to insult or berate anyone in here, eventhough to Paul 'Apostle'.If there is something wrong in my writings above, please showed to me and I'll fix it run away.And once more, if there is in my hand writings that doesn't not pleased on your heart, please don't don't hesitate to tell me and showed to me. And if there is something wrong and not pleasent to you all christian or any one here, i do apoligize on it. Hopely you all can forgive ray3:.Best regards,Ricky WisnadriGod(Allah) Knows Best

Protecting me Allah(God), from the evil(satan) that You already cursed.In the name of Allah(God), Most Gracious, Most Merciful("betchevy")
Ricky...I apolgize for misleading you, I do not in any way think you are being diesrespectful, but I do have some deisrespect for those who have turned the orginal texts into what we currently have...its not you , but the translators I have disdain for...
Thanks God, if that so. But I'm interesting with your argument above that I bold it. And this question also i already been asked you before in my others thread. It should be you showed to us which translators that you meant by your own word above.Best regards,Ricky WisnadriGod(Allah) Knows Best

Protecting me Allah(God), from the evil(satan) that You already cursed.In the name of Allah(God), Most Gracious, Most Merciful("B'midbar")
I hope you had a pleasant weekend, Ricky W.
Thank you very much for your hope B'midbar, i hope as well as you said B'midbar ray3:.
I think I understand you. You see that in Psalm 14:2, there is the word “if”, like there are still possibilities open, but in Romans, there is no “if”, like it is already decided. I didn’t pay attention to that difference, so you are right to point it out. The reason it didn’t jump out at me is that I tend to read the next line in Psalm 14:3 as saying what God found, and he found, “they had all turned aside”. So it does sound like Paul has anticipated that finding, since he does not give the “if”. (Also, I tend to think God knew what he would find, and it is only a manner of speaking, like saying God “sees”, when of course he has no eyes).
Ok, your argument seems like make senses to me.Ehm... interesting, however if you take a look on the first sentence of Psalms 14, it says : "14:1 The fool hath said in his heart, ....". So it is only for certain people, and it match to what has been said in the 14:2 Psalms, and match either to the 14:3. But in Romans, I haven't found that meaning, I only got the meaning that all(not certain man) without exception, comparing on the first Psalms 14 where it says only on certain people(the fool hath).How do you think B'Midbar, is it my analyze was wrong ?
I think there are many men who seek God, who try to understand and know the truth. I think our minds tend in this direction in a natural sort of way, and we can see by looking at what God has made. Various things get in the way, though. But God reaches out to us to help. I think prophets are one way God has done that. You asked about me personally, though. I was raised Christian, so I have always known of God, but that is not the same as what a person learns as they grow and pray. As I grew, I sought, as you say. Even now, my heart yearns toward God, who is God. Looking back, though, I see that God has helped me to seek Him.
That's why I don't think what in Romans 3:10 was refer to Psalms 14. Because what it says on the Psalms it was something different in writings, and also different in the meaning comparing to Romans.
They are similar, but not identical. When the Psalm says, “there is no one who does good”, what does this mean to you?
In my personal meaning according to Chapter 14. That in every fool hath at that time they wouldn't do something good. Such as they will do cheating, killing, lying, adultery, bla...bla...bla...So in my opinion this verse talking about the whole good or bad human behaviour.But if we see at the Romans, it's only refer to only one thing, that is righteousness, it just only one or two of the whole human behaviour.
My opinion is that if I find the verse difficult to reconcile, then the fault is likely mine, not Paul’s. I cannot say that I know what Paul was trying to do (nor did you say such a thing, either, I know that). I can only surmise, as I have done.
As well as I did, I'm also not to blame every one in our discussion. But just as I said before, i just asking a question that I had in my head about what it said in the Bible .Because from what i know about the word written that Jesus (pbuh) teach us in the Gospels, it should say something exactly what in the OT. By the time I had something that not exist, ofcourse i will ask it to the one who using Bible.So if there is something like in this case, in my opinion there is some thing that we can conclude :1. Perhaps, Paul 'Apostle' has wrong/guesting on Quote the OT.2. Perhaps, there are a missing text on OT, so what the Paul trying to quote was not record on the Canonic Bible.If i'm follow on what you wrote above base on this statement "then the fault is likely mine, not Paul’s." I think the first conclusion was a fallacy. But then question, is it possible with the second conclusion of mine ?Or I have wrong both ?For the help, and respons for the question of mine, i shall say thanks .And for the bad and not wise word from me, i do appologize for it.Best regards,Ricky WisnadriGod(Allah) Knows Best

Protecting me Allah(God), from the evil(satan) that You already cursed.In the name of Allah(God), Most Gracious, Most Merciful("kriss")
Yes Ricky if it says it is written then it is written somewhere in scriptures
If that so what you said, then are you agree with my 2 conclusion above (my comments on B'midbar) ?I'll quote it for you "Ricky W")
So if there is something like in this case, in my opinion there is some thing that we can conclude :1. Perhaps, Paul 'Apostle' has wrong/guesting on Quote the OT.2. Perhaps, there are a missing text on OT, so what the Paul trying to quote was not record on the Canonic Bible.If i'm follow on what you wrote above base on this statement "then the fault is likely mine, not Paul’s." I think the first conclusion was a fallacy. But then question, is it possible with the second conclusion of mine ?Or I have wrong both ?
What do you think kriss ?Best regards,Ricky WisnadriGod(Allah) Knows Best

Protecting me Allah(God), from the evil(satan) that You already cursed.In the name of Allah(God), Most Gracious, Most MercifulOnce again, thank you for your time in response and answer my question . So this response for kriss and thesuperjag.Just as I said previously, actually I just trying to ask about in Romans 3:10, and not the others. Let me quoting in my previous statement.("Ricky W")
Ehm... interesting, however if you take a look on the first sentence of Psalms 14, it says : "14:1 The fool hath said in his heart, ....". So it is only for certain people, and it match to what has been said in the 14:2 Psalms, and match either to the 14:3. But in Romans, I haven't found that meaning, I only got the meaning that all(not certain man) without exception, comparing on the first Psalms 14 where it says only on certain people(the fool hath).
In the above statement, i attent to questioning on Romans 3:10 rather than others. However let me show you the view of point of me why i'm questioned it.("thesuperjag")
Romans 3:10 - As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not onesalm 14:1 - The fool hath said in his heart, There is no God. They are corrupt, they have done abominable works, there is none that doeth good.
This is what i got from comparing the two verse that i questioned it :Point 1.Psalms 14:1If we read the verse Psalms 14:1, it says that the one who were corrupt (not done a goodness) was fool hath within his heart(so it was only on certaint people, not all the people).Romans 3:10If we read the verse of Romans 3:10, it says none of us(all human) were doing the righteousness. So none of the human being(none of us) was did a righteousness, meanwhile in Psalms says only certain people that is person who has fool hath within his/her heart. So it has a different meaning.Point 2.Psalms 14:1 were talking about a goodness not righteousness. Goodnes is a general thing on human behaviaour, on the specific it can be polite, honest, forgiveness, righteousness etc.MeanwhileRomans 3:10 were talking about righteousness. It's only one of the specific behaviour from goodness of human. So it's a to specific not a general meaning, it's abvious different with Psalms 14:1So regarding on two points that I saw by comparing thus verse, than i was wondering, where was the exactly Paul 'Apostle' trying to quote in the OT. Because from two points that i give it to you, it seems what Paul 'Apostle' trying to quote was a different from Psalms 14:1.("thesuperjag")
Romans 3:11 - There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God.Psalm 14:2 - The LORD looked down from heaven upon the children of men, to see if there were any that did understand, and seek God.
It is something that similliar, but if we read the text carefully, you will see something that has a different meaning.In this context, God looking for men who were looking for Him, by not judging all human are not looking for Him. But it's more like a possibility for human looking/seek for God. And if we saw in the reality, what it has been written in Psalms 14:2 was a correct statement.But, if you saw from the Paul 'Apostle' said, what I see is not as similliar meaning as well as the text perform. It Romans context, it was already judging all human was just like Paul 'Apostle' said.And please considered that i'm not to attent to berate Paul 'Apostle' at all, i just trying to questioned the statement that what I saw there wasn't in the OT, from view of point that I already given to you all .("thesuperjag")
Romans 3:12 - They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable; there is none that doeth good, no, not one.Psalm 14:3 - They are all gone aside, they are all together become filthy: there is none that doeth good, no, not one.
For this one I have no comment further, because the word was not only has same meaning but also has a similliar text perform. And this was also precisely just like Jesus teach about using the word of written. So I'll not questioned on this verse, because this one was clear enough for me .Once more, i do hope you understand view of point that I see regarding on the word written mean by example of what Jesus said/teach in the Gospels.Or actually i was the person who don't understand of how using the word written, and if that so, please give me an explanation on how to use the word written actually according to Bible. Because from what read from the Jesus, every time Jesus trying quote from OT, it seems the word or the meaning that he use were precisely and exactly exist in the OT, wheter by the meaning or the word it self.I hope you all patient, because i'm still blind on it.So I'll just focus questioned on 2 verse of romans, but the most is on Romans 3:10Best regards,Ricky WisnadriGod(Allah) Knows Best