Which translation do you think is the best English translation?

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Davy

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So almost all Bible translators over the last 120+ years are a “cult” whose work is a “steaming pile?”

You said it, as folks like Bruce Metzger who had doubted The Bible in many areas, was on the later committees of newer Bible revisions. Even Catholic bishops sat on those later revision committees, and you think they're going to be honest about not working against the Protestant Faith?

It all comes down to the old battle like I said before, between the Roman Catholic Church (of which Hort showed support towards per his personal letters), vs. the Protestant Faith. This is why Erasmus rejected the Alexandrian texts for his Greek New Testament, because of Catholic influence and the corrupt allegory philosophy teachings of the school at Alexandria, Egypt like Origen of Alexandria, etc. And on the other side, those who support the Roman Catholic Church's goals against the Protestant Faith and Church of England, instead hate the Textus Receptus work by Erasmus, and instead push the Alexandrian texts, which Wescott and Hort did, as also Tischendorf, Griesbach, etc., basically the school of Textual Critics. (See Bridge to Babylon, at

)
 

Wrangler

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It all comes down to the old battle like I said before, between the Roman Catholic Church (of which Hort showed support towards per his personal letters), vs. the Protestant Faith.

Hmmm. I thought it was between good and evil not between God's chosen?
 

Davy

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Hmmm. I thought it was between good and evil not between God's chosen?

We could... go deeper with that point, but it's gonna' offend the Catholic believers here on this forum. My ancestors left 15th century France because they were French Protestants, which is how they wound up in the early American colonies. So I will never side with the Roman Catholic Church's attempts to bring Protestants back under their authority.

But what about you, are you a Catholic?
 
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Davy

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Not but I was raised a bad Catholic.

Well, I don't hate Catholics. Lot of my friends are Catholics. And I recognize many good Christians among the Catholic Church. So they aren't the problem. It's their political leadership that is, and they still have designs to overthrow the Protestant Faith and that is why those have sneaked their textual critics into Bible revision committees, even bishops sitting on those committees to make sure their ecumenical designs are followed in those revisions. (https://www.amazon.com/Revised-Standard-Version-Ecumenical-Common/dp/B0074K8JDE)

But those Catholic leaders are not the only problem in this matter. The false Jews of the "synagogue of Satan" are actually at the heart of it all. For centuries the false Jews have determined to overthrow Christianity period. And looks like they've done a pretty good job creeping into the Roman Church leadership. But they hadn't gotten the same amount of control in many Protestant Churches, though they have weakened many of them, including the Church of England.

And deeper than those even, there is the occult secret society elements backing them, the 'direct' servants of the devil that worship Lucifer, and know they worship Lucifer. Adam Weishaupt, a professor of law, and an orthodox Jew, in 1776 introduced his secret society order of the Illuminati in Bavaria. In a letter to one of his upper crust, he bragged of how his 'Christian Degree' had duped a certain Christian divine, a Catholic bishop (see Proofs of a Conspiracy, by John Robison, 1798). I personally have Protestant Baptist friends with fathers that are both pastors and members of the Masonic Lodge. And Robison in his 1798 book revealed how European continental Masonry was taken over by Weishaupt's Illuminati order. American Masonry is based on the continental European version. Original Masonry came from Britain and had only 3 degrees. The Illuminati added many more degrees in continental Europe which is where modern Masonry comes from, a corrupted form created by Weishaupt and his cronies (again per John Robison's book).
 
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The Disciple John

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Only a cannibal can throw up his hands.

a) I am definitely not promoting the futility of translating the Bible. Where did you get that strange idea?

b) I can't handle the truth because I consider the KJV just another translation, and not a good one at that? Really? I don't consider you as qualified to judge me. BTW, your beloved KJV has this: Judge not, that ye be not judged" Or did you cut that out of your copy?
Took me a few minutes to get the cannibal bit, but... LOL.
 

Robert Gwin

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The New World translation is the one created by the Jehovah's Witnesses. Do you realize that?

Was not the author of the Bible Jehovah sir? Did not He use His witnesses to pen His words? Was not those words for His people Jim? Yes I fully realize that.
 

Robert Gwin

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Robert,

That's a very biased JW translation that reads JW false doctrine into the text.

If you want easy-to-read versions in simplified language, I suggest The New Living Translation and The Easy-to-Read Version. This latter version was originally translated for the deaf, so the language was simpler and the sentences shorter.

Oz

Can you give me an example of it's bias sir?
 

Robert Gwin

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An unqualified team of FIVE men translated the NWT:
Fred Franz, Milton Henschel, George Gangas, Albert Schroeder,
and Nathan Knorr.

Franz was the ONLY one of them who had ANY knowledge at all of Hebrew and Greek – and studied Greek for just TWO years. This did NOT include the Biblical Koine Greek in which the NT is written. He also claimed to be “self-educated” in Hebrew.

NONE of the remaining four men had ANY credentials OR qualifications to translate the Scriptures.
This fact alone should send up a giant RED FLAG for any serious Bible student.

I gather you do not think it is an accurate version Bread. Do you have an example, and how it should be rendered?
 

Wrangler

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Not but I was raised a bad Catholic.

Well, I don't hate Catholics. Lot of my friends are Catholics. And I recognize many good Christians among the Catholic Church.

What I meant by being raised 'a bad Catholic' is my parents, particularly my mother, was a hypocrite. She forced me to attend CCD to get the sacrements and go to church but she herself did not attend. This told mer her faith was normative and not truly important in her life. So, why should it be important to me? Just get the sacraments and be done with it.
 

The Disciple John

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It amazes me to watch all the intense arguments about the accuracy of Bible translations among those who seem to have no problem with replacing the Tetragrammaton with Adonai 6,800 times in the Hebrew Scriptures. That is 6,800 falsehoods. Not just errors. Falsehoods. I appreciate the KJV leaving it where it belongs in 4 verses. That is better than most, regardless of the manuscripts used. I remember asking people some 50 years ago what God’s name is and they had no idea. I would show them Psalms 83:18 in the KJV. Many were very surprised and moved to learn more about the Bible.
I think that was a blessing, before the revised KJV omitted the name from those four places, because, like you said, you could use the KJV, and show people that God has a personal name... and they didn't want to object to their beloved translation.
I started using ASV, when I realized that they had the name consistently throughout the "OT".
 

The Disciple John

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Aunty Jane,

The New World Translation of John 1:1 (NWT) is a profound example of how the NWT got it wrong: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god." "A god" violates a fundamental of Greek grammar:


The Jehovah’s Witnesses argue that the correct translation is “a god.” In so doing, they violate a canon of Greek Grammar. This rule has come to be known as “The Colwell Rule” (1933). It says that: “A definite predicate nominative has the article when it follows the verb; it does not have the article when it precedes the verb.” In the case of John 1:1, the clause in question says και θεος ην (and was God). The verb “was” (ην) follows the noun “God” (θεος). In short, in Greek usage, we wouldn’t expect a definite article (the) because it’s not necessary. According to rule, we would expect the definite article to occur with a noun following the verb. The reason the definite article is absent is not because John is denying the consubstantiality of the Son with the Father but because the grammar doesn’t need the definite article. Further, as Countess continues, the New World Translation is not (as of 1967) even consistent with it’s own stated principles (R Scott Clarke).​

What many fail to realize is that 4of the 5 men on the translation committee producing the complete 1961 edition had no Hebrew or Greek training whatsoever. The fifth, who claimed to know both languages, failed a simple Hebrew test while under oath in a Scottish court. . . . Charles L. Feinberg noted, “I can assure you that the rendering which the Jehovah’s Witnesses give John 1:1 is not held by any reputable Greek scholar.” (source)​

JWs deny the deity of Christ and this translation of John 1:1 confirms that view.

What paraphrases of the Bible did I recommend?

Oz



P.S. Are you a supporter of Jehovah's Witness beliefs?
Would that mean the KJV got it wrong at Acts 28:6 - Howbeit they looked when he should have swollen, or fallen down dead suddenly: but after they had looked a great while, and saw no harm come to him, they changed their minds, and said that he was a god. ?
 
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The Disciple John

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Here are some quotes regarding Colwell’s rule.
Colwell himself said:
"The following rules may be tentatively formulated....definite predicate nouns which precede the verb usually lack the article.."-Journal of Biblical Literature,Vol.52,1933,p.20.

"According, from the point of view of grammar alone,[theos en ho logos]could be rendered "the Word was a god." This leads me to affirm that one may not infer from [Colwell's]rule 2b that anarthrous predicate nouns which precede the verb are usually definite. Indeed, such nouns will usually be qualitative in emphasis."
Murray Harris - Jesus as God - The New Testament Use of Theos In Reference to Jesus (pg 312)
It should be noted also that Colwell said, "...if the context suggests that the predicate is definite, it should be translated as a definite noun..."
Colwell considers factors such as context, allowing for the predicate to be indefinite "only when the context demands it"
 

BreadOfLife

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I gather you do not think it is an accurate version Bread. Do you have an example, and how it should be rendered?
The New World Translation (NWT) was tailored for the perverted doctrines invented by Charles Taze Russell, the false prophet and founder of the Watchtower Society.

A few glaring examples of JW doctrinal bias resulting in the perversion of Scripture in the New World Translation (NWT) are:

- In John 1:1, the NWT renders this verse as a god” (instead of than “God”) because of the JW denial of the divinity of Jesus.

- In Col. 1:15-20, the NWT inserts the word “other” no less than FOUR TIMES to support their false doctrine that Christ is a created being.

- Matt. 26:26, states, “this means my body”, instead of, “this IS my body” because of their doctrinal stance against the Real Presence.

Because of these type of blatant perversions - there is simply NO reputable Biblical scholar – Catholic OR Protestant who takes the NWT seriously.
 

OzSpen

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Would that mean the KJV got it wrong at Acts 28:6 - Howbeit they looked when he should have swollen, or fallen down dead suddenly: but after they had looked a great while, and saw no harm come to him, they changed their minds, and said that he was a god. ?

That is not an affirmation teaching that Jesus was a god.

Oz