One does not necessarily need to see the word "paid". The finished work of Christ is called A RANSOM. And a ransom price is paid in order to redeem or deliver someone. So here are the Scriptures which speak of a ransom:
Then he is gracious unto him, and saith, Deliver him from going down to the pit: I have found a ransom (Heb kofer = the price of a life). (Job 33:24)
None of them can by any means redeem his brother, nor give to God a ransom (kofer) for him (Ps 49:7)
I will ransom (Heb pada = redeem) them from the power of the grave; I will redeem them from death: O death, I will be thy plagues; O grave, I will be thy destruction: repentance shall be hid from mine eyes. (Hos 13:14)
Even as the Son of man came not to be ministered unto, but to minister, and to give his life a ransom (Gk lutron = the price for redeeming) for many. (Mt 20:28; Mk 10:45)
For there is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; Who gave himself a ransom (Gk antilutron =what is given in exchange for another as the price of his redemption, ransom) for all, to be testified in due time. (1 Tim 2:5,6)
Is there a contradiction between "a ransom for many" and "a ransom for all"? Not at all. While the ransom was paid for all of humanity, not all will believe and obey the Gospel. Hence "the many" (which are also relatively "the few"). Since all will not believe, all will not be redeemed.
There was a "sin debt" to be paid to God before He could be reconciled to mankind, and then only could sinners be ransomed or redeemed. And that is the "ransom" which Christ paid with His "one great sacrifice for sin" (He gave His life, His blood, and the offering of His soul, through the intense suffering of Hell within Himself. See Isaiah 53).
Yet, you still failed to discover a single verse that asserts without any doubt that Jesus "paid" anything on the Cross, and with that, all the terms you present are with the assumption that a payment exists when it does not.
Propitiation, reconciliation, justification, redemption, being brought near, putting away sin, suffering, dying for sin, and offering oneself up,
is not payment. This I hope will narrow the field to the more important passages.
Doesn’t the Bible say that we were "bought" with a price? That we are a "purchased" possession? That were "redeemed" and there was a "ransom?" This is without a doubt true! But none of the above statements say, show, or prove in any way that Jesus was punished or that there was a "payment
for sins."
I have already posted a response to what we would call, "paying the price" and "bought with a price."
We are His "purchase." This also says nothing of a fictitious payment to the devil, the Father, or for sins. By the self-sacrifice of Jesus, people who are hopelessly lost on their own, became savable because of His death. Anyone that is ultimately saved is due to His atonement. His death on the cross gives Him the rights to whatever fruit it bears.
Some see the term of "redeem" as positing the necessity of a payment. The fact that the exchange of His life for those that believe explains this redemption. There was a cost, and it was not a payment for sins. Payment for sins can be
assumed if it is read into this passage, but it cannot be drawn from it. Ransom can also be seen as an exchange without interjecting non-Biblical ideas of payment into it. In order to draw the meaning of a commercial payment from these passages, one has to have clear statements that the Sacrifice of Jesus was a "payment." Without such, one can only assume and try to reverse engineer Scripture to arrive at their assumptions.