attacking another denomination are included in this rule.
- Thread starter Brakelite
- Start date
-
Welcome to Christian Forums, a Christian Forum that recognizes that all Christians are a work in progress.
You will need to register to be able to join in fellowship with Christians all over the world.
We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!
Grailhunter
Well-Known Member
Iesous is not a name. Now tell me what it means and why they used it.
Desire Of All Nations
Well-Known Member
I have to completely disagree with the part where you say the scriptures have "many different interpretations" because it is unequivocally false. The interpretations come from people not allowing the Bible to speak for itself, and the apostle Peter said that no one is supposed to interpret any biblical prophecies.
The Bible does a fantastic job at providing the meaning to its own prophetic symbols. The reader is supposed to allow the Bible to speak for itself, put the pieces of the puzzle together using the symbols it provides, and then they can see the picture.
A great example of how this works is Dan. 2. Daniel told Nebuchadnezzar in Dan. 2 that the different metals in the statue that he dreamed of represented Gentile empires that would rule the entire world until the moment where a mysterious stone comes out of nowhere and completely annihilates the statue. Daniel told the king that his kingdom was represented by the head that was made of gold, and eventually got around to telling him that the mysterious stone that destroyed the statue symbolized the Kingdom of God.
Catholics and Protestants have wildly different interpretations of what the dream was about because they don't allow the text to speak for itself. And because they believe that God's Kingdom is a sentiment that is inside people based on an awful translation of Luk. 17:21, they don't think of the Kingdom of God as a literal, world-ruling empire that will exist when Jesus returns.
The same holds true for the vision Daniel saw in ch. 7. In this chapter, Daniel saw 4 successive beasts. Most "Christians" have wildly different interpretations of what those beasts represents because they don't allow the Bible to speak for itself(for instance, there are those who say that the bear supposedly represents Russia). If a person allowed the Bible to speak for itself, they would know that the 4 beasts represented the same exact empires that were represented by the metals of the Dan. 2 statue, and in the same exact order.
And because those same people fail to let the Bible connect those dots, they consequently fail to realize that the beast that the whore rides in Rev. 17 represents the 7 resurrections of the 4th beast that is described in Dan. 7(secular history refers to these resurrections as the "Holy Roman Empire").
There aren't "many interpretations" of scripture because the NT refers to biblical Christianity as "the faith that was once delivered"(Jude 4), "our common salvation"(Jude 3), and "the Way"(Acts 19:9). Those phrases inherently imply that there is only 1 true way to understand the Bible while all of the other ways are false.
I didn't say the scriptures HAVE many different interpretations.
I said "When you go to the scripture there are so many different interpretations of that scripture that arguing is inevitable."
I'm speaking of the arguments that come from the different interpretations of that scripture.
It's like when you and I go to the scripture, you interpret one way, and I another.
Iesous is same as Jesus in sound. Sound matters to God. God called his son Jesus(iesous) per Matt 1. Not a Hebrew name.
Grailhunter
Well-Known Member
Philip James
Well-Known Member
Hello Desire,
Hmm im not sure who the 'they' is you speak of. But Christ had a world ruling empire through His Church for 1000 years...
Are you ready for the final unleashing of evil?
Pax et Bonum
Do you know the dominant language of Jesus' day was Greek? The NT was also written in Greek? The NT was written in the dominant language for maximum effect on sinners?
Or, it was written in the secret Hebrew language for only hard core Jews, excluding the gentiles?
Grailhunter
Well-Known Member
Since the New Testament presents Jesus in Greek as Iesous, you seem to have gone off the rails.
Grailhunter
Well-Known Member
It is just because you are not knowledgeable of the topic. Go study some more....if you work hard you might learn something.
Iesous is not a name and then you have to figure out why the Apostles used that instead of Christ's real name Yeshua.
Philip James
Well-Known Member
Heya Grailhunter,
Thought this was an excellent article and pertinenet to your discussion.
Yeshua? Iesous? Jesus? Some other form? Who’s right?
Pax et Bonum
Grailhunter, you would be wise to admit that you are completely out-of-touch with reality. That you are living in fantasyland. It is the Holy Spirit who gave the NT writers the words that are written in Greek. And the name of Jesus in Greek is indeed Iesous. Therefore it was translated as "Jesus".
King James Bible
Then was Jesus led up of the Spirit into the wilderness to be tempted of the devil. (Mt 4:1)
Τότε ὁ Ἰησοῦς* ἀνήχθη εἰς τὴν ἔρημον ὑπὸ τοῦ πνεύματος πειρασθῆναι ὑπὸ τοῦ διαβόλου
*Strong's Concordance
Iésous: Jesus or Joshua, the name of the Messiah, also three other Isr.
Original Word: Ἰησοῦς, οῦ, ὁ
Part of Speech: Noun, Masculine
Transliteration: Iésous
Phonetic Spelling: (ee-ay-sooce')
Definition: Jesus or Joshua, the name of the Messiah, also three other Isr
Usage: Jesus; the Greek form of Joshua...
Also, "Joshua" in Hebrew is actually "Yehoshua" (marked in red below).
וַיְהִ֗י אַחֲרֵ֛י מֹ֥ות מֹשֶׁ֖ה עֶ֣בֶד יְהוָ֑ה וַיֹּ֤אמֶר יְהוָה֙ אֶל־ יְהֹושֻׁ֣עַ בִּן־נ֔וּן מְשָׁרֵ֥ת מֹשֶׁ֖ה לֵאמֹֽר
So "Yeshua" should really be "Yehoshua" (if you are using Hebrew).
Grailhunter
Well-Known Member
Thank you but still not right
I am not going to say that the internet is not a good source of information but it is still good to check it out.
The internet is not going to be a good place for ancient linguistics. For one thing you will get too many explanations.
The topic is too complicated.
Why would the Apostles use the word Iesous instead of Yeshua? Christ was Jewish...His name would be Hebrew. Why is it people don't think of this on their own? They should key on that and understand something is awry.
It is a complicated topic and I have tried to explain it here on the Forum. But still people have to consider the facts. Some things to consider.
1. The New Testament was mostly written in Greek because most Jews and most of the readers could not read Hebrew. That is why the Septuagint occurred in the first place....most people read and wrote in Greek.
2. The Greek language did not have words that defined Christian morals....no surprise, the Greek language is Pagan. If a Greek soldier said he sinned, he meant his arrow did not hit the target....no moral implication. The Greek language did not have a specific word for adultery. So the Apostles used the Greek word moicheia (μοιχεία) it defined something wrong culturally but could involve a wife, or even a daughter, or a sister that was not married. This was something that the Apostles struggled with. Some times they would use Greek words that had close descriptions or definitions.
3. The Apostles were Jews and they had and still have an issue with writing God's name, in fact even today they even write the word God as G-d. Scholars speculate that, that is one of the reasons that God the Father's name was completely removed from the scriptures. They apparently felt the same way about Yeshua or Yehoshua....His name being kind of like Ed and Edward.
4. So that is maybe one of the reasons that the Apostles chose to use a descriptive Greek word as His name. Word not name!
The meaning of Greek words can depend on the other words in the sentence or the topic. The Greek word Iesous can mean "healer" or "noble man" depending on the context. It is not a name, it is a Greek word, that is why you will not find anyone in Greco-Roman history named Iesous because it is not a name.
5. Yeshua was known to be a popular Hebrew name and it appeared in the Old Testament. In our Bibles because of the J slam, it is spelt Joshua.
There is still more to the topic but that is a shortened and simple explanation.
Johnny Appleseed of truth.....Be good and do good.
Last edited:
Grailhunter
Well-Known Member
Ok, you are boring me now. You do not know enough on the topic to contribute. Go back and study.
Philip James
Well-Known Member
Personally I dont think Jesus cares overly much how we prononce His Name, im pretty sure He knows WHO we are speaking to or about, for He knows our hearts..
The symbols I use to convey that to others in speech (and writing) may not be intelligeble to some, but to HIM they most certainly are..
Pax et Bonum
Grailhunter
Well-Known Member
They used iesous because the NT was written in Greek.
Hebrew was as a minority language in those days as it is in the US today.
God was reaching to the masses with the gospel, so allowed Israel to be dominated by world powers for 400 years prior to Jesus' coming.
God was smart for that.
Grailhunter
Well-Known Member
Similar threads
