6. GOING BACK
This mundane category of Scriptures centres around the idea of returning. (That is why I've called it: Going Back.) Because the word “return” plays such a prominent part in this section, I think it would be good to look it up to be sure of its definition, and for those whose dictionary is not trained to come on command, mine Kiel - Delitzsch(#15) says that return means:
“to go or come back; revert; bring, give, send, hit, put, or pay back; a going or coming back, a happening again.”
Job 1:21 -
And Job said,[1] Naked came I out of my mother's womb and naked shall I return thither.
Obviously Job was not going to re-enter his mother's womb, right? So then why is his death described as a return to his mother's womb?
[2] Why didn't he say, Naked was I born and naked shall I die? Well, may I suggest that, to a person (author) who knows about preconception existence, who is writing a book about suffering (but not for sin committed during this life since he was characterized as : “There was a man in the land of Uz, whose name was Job; and that man was perfect and upright, and one that feared God, and eschewed evil.”) this is a very poetic, secretive way of describing death, that is, our return to the state we were in before we were given life.
Now, a return to the state one was in before one was born or given life can mean only one of two things: either
annihilation or preconception existence. Well, since I do not believe that Job's author thought that death meant annihilation, I am not really left with much choice. There is only one rational answer left... Now, what do you think about that?
[3] Pretty surprising eh!
Psalm 9:17 -
KJV -
The wicked shall be turned into hell ...
NASV -
The wicked shall return to Sheol ...
Kiel - Delitzsch(#16) -
Yea, back to Hades must the wicked return.
In this verse, we can see a little of the bias of the KJV translators
against the preconception view. It is important to see this because, once we recognise the fact that almost every translator has a bias against preconception theology, we must realise that we will often have to look very thoroughly at their translations of the Scriptures, if we are going to see past it.
From the other translations of this verse, we can see that these persons, at their death, return to Hades, a place they have obviously been in before. Need I say more? So then, in addition to Eve, Moses and Job, David was/is a preconceptionist too. Surprise!
Psalm 23:6 -
Surely goodness and mercy shall follow me all the days of my life: and I will dwell in the house of the LORD forever.
Perhaps it would be of some interest to you to see how we arrived at this translation of what David had to say.
I quote Kiel - Delitzsch(#17): "A final example of dittography
[4] is taken from the last verse of Psalm 23:
"And I will dwell in the house of the LORD forever." As pointed by the Masoretes, the verb form
‘wesabti’ would have to mean "And
I will return (to the house)" - as if the psalmist had left the Lord's house and now expected to return to it permanently.
But if the consonants are pointed
‘wesibti’, then we have the reading of the LXX: kai to katoikein me ["And my dwelling" (will be in the house)]. This is rather unusual from the standpoint of Hebrew style, even though it is by no means impossible.
Perhaps the most attractive option, however, is to understand this word as a case of haplography.
[5] With the introduction of the square Hebrew form of the alphabet after the return from Babylonian exile, the shape of 'w' (waw) greatly resembled that of 'y' (yodh); and by the period of 1QIsa, it often happened that a long-tailed yodh looked precisely like a short-tailed waw.
That being the case, it would be easy for haplography to occur whenever a 'yodh' and a 'waw' occurred together. The Greek copyist, then, might have seen what looked like two waw's together and figured that this was a mistake for a single waw, and hence left out the second one - which actually should have been a yodh. If this reconstruction is correct, then the original wording used by David was
weyasabti, meaning,
"And I will dwell," expressed in the normal and customary Hebrew way."
Makes one wonder just how many other “translations" we have that are the product of our presupposition that we are created in the womb?
You're supposed to put your trust in the Scriptures, not our translations.
Ecclesiastes 12:7 -
Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto GOD who gave it.
This verse supplies a description of what can happen to a person's spirit after death, which part was not so plain in the previous references.
The body returns to being basic elements: dust, as it was, that state it was in before it was alive; and this person's spirit returns to GOD, that state it was in before it was alive.
Therefore, “gave it” must mean “gave it life - sent it to live” rather than “gave it existence - created it then”. “Unto GOD” must mean “to the place - state where They are.”
If the spirit did not exist before conception, then it could not return anywhere, that is, “unto GOD”. It would have never been there before. Only with preconception existence can a spirit return to be with GOD, without making “return” mean something else.
So then, we can put Solomon on the preconception side of things too.
John 3:12 -
How shall ye believe, if I tell you heavenly things?
John 3:13 -
And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man who is in heaven.[6]
Ever wondered about
3:13? Are you prepared to accept that no one has ever gone to heaven except Jesus? Are we supposed to believe that everyone goes somewhere else? And what about Paul?
[7] Was he deluded? If we believe that some people go into heaven, then, it seems that, according to this verse as it so plainly reads, we must also accept that that is where those persons came from at some time or another.
I think that the phrase Jesus uses to introduce His second
[8] revelation to Nicodemus also hints at our preconception existence, in that this phrase definitely prepares those who are listening to receive a revelation of heavenly truth, that is, something not revealed on Earth before.
1 Peter 2:25 -
For ye were as sheep going astray: but are now returned unto the Shepherd and Bishop of your souls.
Well, to return, one must have been there before, at least, according to the normal use of the word. Therefore, in this verse, it would be normal to infer that the sheep that had gone astray, were, at one time part of the Shepherd's flock but had strayed away from HIS care. Since I am sure that the Shepherd was not negligent,
the straying away from HIS care must involve some rebellion.
Therefore, it is normally obvious that Peter is writing to some apostatised Christians.
It is also normally apparent that what he was writing is intended for every new convert in every age since.
Therefore, it seems normal that the Holy Spirit would have us believe that
all of the Church has personally apostatised from Christ prior to their conversion in this life.
I think that Peter bore added witness to this fact in
1 Peter 1:3 -
Blessed be the GOD and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ ...which ...hath begotten us again unto a lively hope...
Just when was the first time you were begotten by GOD?
[9] And when did you get unbegotten? Well, unless you are one of those earthly backsliden types, the only time such an unbegetting or rebellion could have taken place is prior to your conception. And since Peter is writing to the whole Church rather than to just the backsliden types, he must be referring to a preconception rebellion and the straying of HIS elect since that time, which straying or rebellion ends only upon conversion to obedience unto holiness to that Shepherd, viz., upon being born in Christ (begotten) again.
Moreover, it is very obvious from 2 Peter 2:4,9
[10] that Peter knew what had happened at the “angelic fall”. Of course, he did not explain it. He just showed us that he knew. Well, now can you know too, but do not worry about it. Very soon, only the abnormal won't know about it.
Revelation 3:12 -
Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of My GOD, and he shall go no more out.
NIV - Never again shall he leave it.
So, all these overcomers left GOD's temple, which I presume is the one in Paradise. You know, the one Moses copied, as per
Acts 7:44 -
Our fathers had the tabernacle of witness in the wilderness, as HE had appointed, speaking unto Moses, that he should make it according to the fashion that he had seen., and
Hebrews 8:5 -
Who serve unto the example and shadow of heavenly things, as Moses was admonished of GOD when he was about to make the tabernacle: for, See, saith He, that thou make all things according to the pattern shewed to thee in the mount.
Well, you should know my explanation by now. What's yours?
~RLC
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Notes for: 6, Going Back
1 - First of all, I am not of the opinion that Job wrote Job. Second, I am not convinced that it is an historical account, viz., I think it might be a story, like a parable. In other words, I don't think Job knew about his preconception existence, but I think the author knew about his. Who wrote it? I don't know, but it wouldn't surprise me to find out that it was Moses or Solomon.
2 - Maybe Job was just in a state of shock, eh? Maybe he did not really realise the theological implications of what he was saying.
3 - These same arguments also apply to Ecclesiastes 5:13-16 -
There is a sore evil which I have seen under the sun, namely, riches kept for the owners thereof to their hurt. But those riches perish by evil travail: and he begeteth a son, and there is nothing in his hand. As he came forth of his mother's womb, naked shall he return to go as he came, and shall take nothing of his labour, which he may carry in his hand. And this also is a sore evil, that in all points as he came, so shall he go: and what profit hath he that hath laboured for the wind?
4 - Dittography(#18): “This common transcriptural error consists of writing twice what is to be written only once. A clear example of this in the MT is Ezekiel 48:16: hames hames meot (“five five hundreds”). Noting the mistake, the Masoretes left the second hames without vowel pointing, indicating that the word should be omitted altogether in the reading.”
5 - Haplography(#19): “Essentially, haplography means writing once what should have been written twice.” (It is the opposite of dittography. Round and round and round we go! Talk about a circus. Well, last year this circus was cool but next year it will be only for the fools!)
6 -
“Who is in heaven” does not appear in most manuscripts and is thought to be a gloss by many commentators. [Gloss: “an explanation, as a marginal note or interlineation,” (something between the lines) “of the meaning of some word in the text; a remark or comment intended to illustrate some point of difficulty”(#20).]
In other words, many commentators do not think that John wrote it in the original.
7 - Consider what is commonly termed Paul's ascent into heaven in 2 Corinthians 12:2-4 -
I knew a man in Christ above fourteen years ago, (whether in the body, I cannot tell; or whether out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth
such an one caught up to the third heaven. And I know such a man, (whether in the body, or out of the body, I cannot tell: God knoweth How that he was caught up into Paradise, and heard unspeakable words, which it is not lawful for a man to utter (on Earth).
8 - Jesus revealed three truths to Nicodemus that necessitate a few major doctrines.
First, the new birth (John 3:3 -
Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God. - being elect is not enough) necessitates the doctrines of
GOD's particular election (GOD chooses to whom HE will give new life) and the
doctrine of the total corruption (inability to please GOD apart from life in Christ) of man, viz., you can not escape your spiritual enslavement and delusions apart from HIS saving grace.
Second, verse 13 necessitates the doctrine of our preconception existence and exit from heaven at some time or another.
Third, verse 14 necessitates that the doomed to destruction look in faith to the Son of man for healing (life) that is, the doctrine of vicarious atonement and righteousness by faith (unto holiness).
The first and third were accompanied by short explanations. For some reason, the second did not get described. (...In other words, Jesus is a preconceptionist too!!)
9 - Compare Deuteronomy 32:5,6 - NIV -
They have acted corruptly toward HIM; to their shame they are no longer HIS children, but a warped and crooked generation. Is this the way you repay the LORD, O foolish and unwise people? Is HE not your Father, your Creator, who made you and formed you?
10 - 2 Peter 2:4,9 -
For if GOD spared not the angels that sinned, but cast them down to hell, and delivered them into chains of darkness, to be reserved unto judgement;...The LORD knoweth how to deliver the godly out of temptations, and to reserve the unjust unto the day of judgement to be punished.
