Soooo, the linguists at Strong’s are in “total error” – so I should just take YOUR word for it.
The uneducated opinion of an ignorant poster on an obscure little online forum?
You’re not only ignorant – you’re arrogant. So, when the EXPERTS prove you wrong – THEY are wrong – is that it??
Your repeated argument that the Pharisees couldn’t fully understand what Jesus was saying on the cross is your MOST desperate and moronic. Were YOU there? Did you hear Jesus shout out “Eli, Eli, Lama sabachthani” is a CLEAR voice?
Are you SURE that He wasn’t in such pain that it may have come out somewhat garbled? The Bible says He shouted out in a loud voice – it DOESN’T say that He spoke in a CLEAR voice.
I know that when I’m in pain – my wife RARELY understands what I’m shouting about.
With regard to your argument involving OT verses like Dan 2:4, 2 kings 18:26, Isa_36:11, etc. - the word “Syriack” is Old English from the KJV. In the HEBREW text, however, the word used here is ארמית which translates as “ARAMAIC”:
ארמית - 'Aramiyth
Pronunciation: ar-aw-meeth'
Definition: Aramaic = "language" 1) the language of Aram, Aramaic
feminine of 761; (only adverbial)in Aramean:-in the Syrian language (tongue), in Syriac.
see HEBREW for 0761
As for the NT verses like Acts 21:40, Acts22:2, Acts 26:14, etc. – this is translated in the Greek as “heb-rah-is'”. This goes back to what I explained to you before. That it is talking about the “Chaldee Hebrew” and NOT the Hebrew in which the OT was written. Chanldee is another name for ARAMAIC.
You are arguing from a point of ignorance here because, although you fancy yourself as a linguist – you AIN’T one . . .