God knows all things, including those who are heirs of the promise and those who are not. To say God does not know you until, is to say God does not know the end from the beginning.
Know (
knew) does not mean
to know about... Neither does
foreknew.
Romans 8:29 - For whom HE did foreknow, HE also did predestinate to be conformed to the image of HIS Son.
From this verse we can see that the predestination of the elect is based on the foreknowledge of GOD. Now everyone admits that in this verse, the word
“fore” means
before life. Therefore, they think that it also means
before creation. I wonder if this is a valid and reasonable link to make?
GOD obviously does
not before life know everybody since not everyone will become like Jesus, as per
Revelation 20:15, And whosoever was not found written in the book of life was cast into the lake of fire.
This means that foreknow must carry the idea of approval. As one commentator stated it, “Whom HE foreknew” is virtually equivalent to
“whom HE foreloved”.
Now this question comes to mind: if it is true that no one had been created at the time of this foreknowledge, on what basis does GOD before life love some and not the rest?
The basis can not be, as some have suggested, some merit in the creatures,
first because no one exists yet;
second, because the ones HE foreloves will be just as defiled in life as any other; and
third, because the Scriptures say election is not on the basis of the creature's works or choices in life, but rather on HIS unmerited favour:
Romans 9:11 - For the children being not yet born, neither having done any good or evil, that the purpose of GOD according to election might stand, not of works, but of HIM that calleth...
Romans 9:16 - So then it is not of him that willeth, nor of him that runneth, but of GOD that sheweth mercy.
Therefore, we can surmise that
GOD does not before life love some because HE has divined that they will have some merit in their life.
...
Well, since the reason for GOD's foreknowledge being particular can not be found in HIS divination of merit in some creatures and since a reasonable answer has not been put forward for why GOD does it particularly, we are left with but two conclusions.
We must either look for the answer elsewhere, in some area we have not looked before, or we must put the basis of HIS foreknowledge down to unreasonable chance.
This would mean that there is no reason for HIS particular before life love. Whom GOD elects - foreknows is based on eenie, meenie, minie, mo, but how can you put your faith in a GOD like that? How much better to admit that we should start looking in some area we have not looked yet, and since we can not find any of those, why not finally admit that we need a revelation from GOD to give us an infinitely loving answer to this problem?
Now, according to preconception theology,
the before life love (
foreknowledge) of GOD, viz., HIS pre-life approval of some and rejection of the rest
is based on the prior uncoerced choice of the creature and on HIS infinite love, which means that HE will never stop loving anyone who can possibly ever come to glorify HIM.
Therein is the reason why HE loved some before this life and why HE did not love the rest.
Some had chosen to eternally defile themselves by their true free will choice before they came to earth and some had not. Some had decided to never ever fulfil HIS purpose and some were still able to fulfil HIS purpose, some willingly, and others only if HE was infallibly gracious to them. Yes, and He predestined these to be conformed to the image of HIS Son, and HE predestined the other evil ones for the Day of Judgement and established them for the correction of the fallen elect.
Now, I ask you, which doctrine is the more scriptural and reasonable and compatible with the attributes of GOD?
Peace, Ted
