The 70th Week of Daniel/2555 days

terry said:

In every language there are at least the basic nouns, adjectives, and verbs with their tense forms. How then can it be possible that you do not do the same also with the Scriptures as you do with my words? even if it is unintentional? When you say that my post was "evil" you employ a word that denotes my "intent" in the writing of my post. However, when I say that "your mistakes and errors are atrocious" I employ a word that describes the outcome potential of your statements, like fruits, and their effects upon those around you. If one bites into a apple that is rotten on the inside he or she might say it was "atrocious" or if one sees an old slice of bread with mold growing on the surface then the same might say it was "atrocious", (yet at the same time many school children likewise consider too much homework to be "atrocious").

One of these is why I try for peace between us... Here you desire to claim my post is atrocious and not me - then you claim when I say your post was evil that I am denoting your intent.... ambigious at best. Though I dis-like cliche's here is one... The road to Hell is paved with good intentions" - the meaning is simple... evil CAN be done with "good" intentions and followed through... all the way to Hell, (not sure about "and back)."

Here is an English dilemma for you... The use of quotation marks are supposed to be directly before and after the quote.
Such as i normally use. However when the quote or the word(s) I wish to draw particular attention to finish at the end of a sentence in stead of... (let us use "growing on the surface" as an example) "growing on the surface". I place the " after the period instead of before it as in: "growing on the surface." - So that is bad sentence structure on my part, but the "correct" way just does not "look right." (artistically) - so I refuse to do it.

Anyway. my point is BOTH can be considered referring merely to the posted words and not the intent of the person.


I wrote... 2556.75 is 7 years to the day - and you rounded up... added .5 to the 3 1/2 meaning
you are in error. Subtract your .5 and you come up with 2556.25.
Now the 1260 plus the next 1260 = 7 years as the Jews had but 360 days to a year,
not 365.25 days to a year. ---- BUT YOU DID - " you rounded up "

The Bible provides us with the durations of these four periods which total 2555 days
exactly. Start by multiplying the seven years that make up the tribulation period by
365 days that make up a year (7 x 365= 2555 Days).
Then you used the word " exactly."

Daq wrote: " The calendar is lunar and there are approximately 29.5 days in the
lunar cycle, (12 x 29.5 = 354 days). Concerning what was said about Hezekiah,
(circa 722-720BC, around the time of the captivity of the Northern Tribes) "
Now you use the word " approximately "

Retrobyter wrote: " It doesn't matter how many people say that "giraffes are purple";
giraffes are NOT purple! It doesn't matter how many theologians say that the
"prophetic year" is 360 days! That still doesn't make them correct! "

Then Retro also wrote: " The solar year, upon which the planting and harvesting cycle
is based is 365.242199 days/year. (And, even that is not exact, although it's a fairly
accurate approximation.) The Jewish calendar DID use a lunar-based month - a "moonth,"
if you will allow it, and daq is correct: each "moonth" is 29.5 days long (roughly).

How is it = or why is it I am under attack becasue I posted this is on error - yet
the words exactly, approximately, roughly, correct, approximately and such are used
to describe the same thing and issue??? That dog just don't hunt.
It cannot be both.. if it is approximately then it is not exact. When Daq writes "exact"
and Retro calls him correct adding also "roughly" then Daw cannot be correct.
I feel like the only one in an earthquake that knows if the building keeps shaking the
buiding will collapse and everyone else is having sex while thinking they are just that good.

Hey... loook over there >>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>
a purple G-raphph! ( just jokin' around here fellerz ) The Giraffe is actually toupe.
(BTW... what is 'toupe" )

One further point... You all are helping mme affirm my stance, providing me with other perspective or giving me rightful correction. I have told you I am one of the Two Witnesses - so you all are assisting me becoming even more correct - do not think that will go un-noticed or has gone un-noticed. Here is the "kicker" Once you alll realize I am not lying about who I am - you will KNOW you have helped a prophet of God - this does not elevate me...it certainly does you all though. I did not say this in a lame attempt to get anyone to embrace who i claim to be, but rather for all of you who have helped to be able to know - once you know i am who I claim to be. I am not at all against anyone being a skeptic, please remember that.

Click to expand...

JosyWales said:

The definition of how a month is to be counted in the bible is given in Revelation where it states that 42 months is the same as 1260 days, so any count that calls for a month uses this formula, meaning 30 days each.

Click to expand...

All of this will likewise be completely illogical to you:

JosyWales said:

The definition of how a month is to be counted in the bible is given in Revelation where it states that 42 months is the same as 1260 days, so any count that calls for a month uses this formula, meaning 30 days each.

However, the Jews did use the sun to plot their years, so, even though we don’t have a clear statement as to how long a year is in the bible, like we do with the month count, it is pretty safe to assume they mean it to be 365 ¼ days (approx.), since we know that is how long a true year is. We know that the Jews knew that as well since they constantly adjusted their calendar to account for the difference between their Lunar months and their Solar years.

This is also supported by the fact that they did not refer to the 42 month, 1260 day period in Revelation and Daniel as 3 1/2 'years', but rather as 3 1/2 'times', showing that they had no intention of using 12 30-day months as a referance to a year, even though they did recognize it as a cycle of time.

Click to expand...

daq said:

And you fancy yourself a teacher? ... :lol:
All of this will likewise be completely illogical to you:

Leviticus 12:1-4 KJV
1. And the Lord spake unto Moses, saying,
2. Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, If a woman have conceived seed, and born a man child: then she shall be unclean seven days; according to the days of the separation for her infirmity shall she be unclean.
3. And in the eighth day the flesh of his foreskin shall be circumcised.
4. And she shall then continue in the blood of her purifying three and thirty days; she shall touch no hallowed thing, nor come into the sanctuary, until the days of her purifying be fulfilled.

Numbers 35:2-6 ASV
2. Command the children of Israel, that they give unto the Levites of the inheritance of their possession cities to dwell in; and suburbs for the cities round about them shall ye give unto the Levites.
3. And the cities shall they have to dwell in; and their suburbs shall be for their cattle, and for their substance, and for all their beasts.
4. And the suburbs of the cities, which ye shall give unto the Levites, shall be from the wall of the city and outward a thousand cubits round about.
5. And ye shall measure without the city for the east side two thousand cubits, and for the south side two thousand cubits, and for the west side two thousand cubits, and for the north side two thousand cubits, the city being in the midst. This shall be to them the suburbs of the cities.
6. And the cities which ye shall give unto the Levites, they shall be the six cities of refuge, which ye shall give for the manslayer to flee unto: and besides them ye shall give forty and two cities.

Forty-Two cities of the priests with all their suburbs; two thousand cubits to the quadrants of their squares: forty-two villages with commons-unwalled towns, and the forty two continued from a new moon to another! Even month to month in all their sojourns and their goings; even month to month in all the foliage of their trees; even month to month in all the fruits of all their goods: even month to month with all their Beasts in all their suburbs!!!!!!!

These things are true because Torah is cyclical, continuing, like purification, and spiritual warfare ...
Unfortunately those who say that Torah is "done away" will NEVER understand unless and until they repent.

Click to expand...

The reason I did not underline the "three" days above in Leviticus 12:4 is because this does not concern whether the full "thirty and three days" were observed at the birth of Yeshua, (they most certainly were observed). However, the ultimate concern is how they were FULFILLED first and foremost in the life of Messiah, (also a "foretaste" of things to come as Retrobyter has stated elsewhere recently). Luke gives us the order in which these thirty and three days were fulfilled in the life of Yeshua; and the days are likewise separated in Luke as they are in Leviticus 12:4, and the same typology applies to all those who would become sons of the kingdom, joint-heirs, and brethren of Messiah, (for he was not ashamed to call us brethren). The Hebrew "shlowshiym" is either "thirty" or "thirtieth" depending upon the context:

Original Strong's Ref. #7970
Romanized shlowshiym
Pronounced shel-o-sheem'
or shloshiym {shel-o-sheem'}; multiple of HSN7969; thirty; or (ordinal) thirtieth:
KJV--thirty, thirtieth. Compare HSN7991.
#shaluwth. See HSN7960.

Notice the fact that "shlowshiym" is the first word of the Leviticus 12:4 passage and that the word immediately after is "yowm", (day) which is SINGULAR in this case, meaning that "THIRTIETH DAY" is the proper understanding. Then the next word is "shlosh"-"shalowsh" which means "three" followed by the plural form of "yowm" which is in this case "yamiym" meaning "three days" ("yowm"-day is in the plural form "yamiym"). "To the" (thirtieth day) is implied by the context because the woman is unclean during the seven days also up to the circumcision of the man-child in the eighth day. Thus the first seven and thirty days run consecutive but the final three days are separated by an unknown chronos-increment of time:

The passage literally implies "And [to the] thirtieth day, and three days, …"

Leviticus 12:4 TUA
4. Uwshloshiym yowm uwshloshet yamiym tesheb bidmey Tahrah. Bkal- qodesh lo'-tiga` w'el- hamiqdash lo' tabo' `ad- mlo't ymey Tahrah.
4. And the thirtieth day, and three days, she is turned away in the blood of her purification. In all things holy not shall she touch; even to the sanctuary not shall she go, until are filled up the days of her purification.

The thirtieth day, and three days, are intentionally separated and the reason is revealed in Luke:

The Thirty Days of Leviticus 12:4 fulfilled in the life of Messiah:

Luke 2:21-24 KJV
21. And when eight days were accomplished for the circumcising of the child, his name was called Jesus, which was so named of the angel before he was conceived in the womb.
22. And when the days of her purification according to the law of Moses were accomplished, they brought him to Jerusalem, to present him to the Lord;
23. (As it is written in the law of the Lord, Every male that openeth the womb shall be called holy to the Lord
24. And to offer a sacrifice according to that which is said in the law of the Lord, A pair of turtledoves, or two young pigeons.

The Three Days of Leviticus 12:4 fulfilled in the life of Messiah:

Luke 2:40-46 KJV
40. And the child grew, and waxed strong in spirit, filled with wisdom: and the grace of God was upon him.
41. Now his parents went to Jerusalem every year at the feast of the passover.
42. And when he was twelve years old, they went up to Jerusalem after the custom of the feast.
43. And when they had fulfilled the days, as they returned, the child Jesus tarried behind in Jerusalem; and Joseph and his mother knew not of it.
44. But they, supposing him to have been in the company, went a day's journey; and they sought him among their kinsfolk and acquaintance.
45. And when they found him not, they turned back again to Jerusalem, seeking him.
46. And it came to pass, that after three days they found him in the temple, sitting in the midst of the doctors, both hearing them, and asking them questions.

The thirty days are fulfilled at the birth of Messiah but then the final three days of the purification of Mariam, mother of Yeshua, are now at this point complete when her son reaches the age of twelve, (like a Bar Mitzvah). This is why Yeshua answers in the manner in which he does at this time; for he has begun to "cleave away" from his mother and father unto the heavenly Father.

Luke 2:48-49 KJV
48. And when they saw him, they were amazed: and his mother said unto him, Son, why hast thou thus dealt with us? behold, thy father and I have sought thee sorrowing.
49. And he said unto them, How is it that ye sought me? wist ye not that I must be about my Father's business?

Likewise Yeshua is the perfect example of the Revelation 12 passage where the "man-child" is caught up to God and to his throne; yet in this case the physical Temple of below is used for the typology while his earthly mother and father searched frantically for him as if they themselves where "lost in the wilderness" being tormented in their own minds over what may have happened to their precious son for three days and probably the half "the woman in the wilderness" (which are the second portion of Revelation 12, from Daniel 7, where "a time, times, and a half" are employed) for the text states "after three days" they found him in the Temple. Likewise apparently none here care to recognize in their pontifications concerning "the seventy weeks of Daniel" the fact that Messiah already fulfilled the first half of the WEEK of Sukkot-Tabernacles:

Retrobyter said:

Shalom, JosyWales.


Sorry, but the book of the Revelation of Yeshua` haMashiach makes NO such equation! That's YOUR take on what was said! The three different time statements are three different TIME PERIODS! That's why they were said three different ways! You've assumed too much to say that they are equivalent time periods! This is a common error; so, I do not blame you as much as the teachers to whom you have listened.

However, if they were all the same time period, then why were they given different ways of computing the length of time?

Click to expand...

JosyWales said:

The Bible is pretty straight forward in showing us that the 1260 days, the 42 months and the 3 1/2 times are all the same.

The first mention of these times is in Daniel but carries little explaination:

Dan 12:7 And I heard the man clothed in linen, which [was] upon the waters of the river, when he held up his right hand and his left hand unto heaven, and sware by him that liveth for ever that [it shall be] for a time, times, and an half; and when he shall have accomplished to scatter the power of the holy people, all these [things] shall be finished.

As you see, all it says is that the 3 1/2 times are linked to the distruction of the Holy People, who are also mentioned in Revelation.

The only other time this is mentioned is in Revelations here:

Rev 12:14 And to the woman were given two wings of a great eagle, that she might fly into the wilderness, into her place, where she is nourished for a time, and times, and half a time, from the face of the serpent.

It then goes on to reflect the passage in Daniel by telling us this:

Rev 12:17 And the dragon was wroth with the woman, and went to make war with the remnant of her seed, which keep the commandments of God, and have the testimony of Jesus Christ.

The Holy People of Daniel 12 are the same as these people in Revelation 12.

Now in the same chapter of Revelation, it goes one more step and defines how long this time, times and a half a time (the 3 1/2 times we are familiar with) actually is here:

Rev 12:6 And the woman fled into the wilderness, where she hath a place prepared of God, that they should feed her there a thousand two hundred [and] threescore days.

So in Revelation 12:6 it says she is fed for 1260 days and then Revelation 12:14 repeats this by saying she is nourished (fed) for a time, times and half a time (3 1/2 times). This proves that the 1260 days and the 3 1/2 times are the same.

However, the 1260 days is listed one other place in the bible and it is also associated with a defining time period:

Rev 11:2 But the court which is without the temple leave out, and measure it not; for it is given unto the Gentiles: and the holy city shall they tread under foot forty [and] two months.

Rev 11:3 And I will give [power] unto my two witnesses, and they shall prophesy a thousand two hundred [and] threescore days, clothed in sackcloth.

As you can see, the bible tells us directly that the 42 months and the 1260 days are the same thing. This makes sense because if you divide 42 months by 3 1/2 times, you get 30 days each, which mimics the Jewish Lunar calendar for their months. This also explains why it is called 3 1/2 times and not 3 1/2 years because the Jews knew that 12 lunar months does not make a year, which is wny they used the Sun (solar rotation) to count their years by.

The 42 months are mentioned in one other place, just to make sure we understand that this is all the same time period and that is in Revelation 13:

Rev 13:4 And they worshipped the dragon which gave power unto the beast: and they worshipped the beast, saying, Who [is] like unto the beast? who is able to make war with him?

Rev 13:5 And there was given unto him a mouth speaking great things and blasphemies; and power was given unto him to continue forty [and] two months.

And there you have it. Rev 11 tells us that the 42 months and the 1260 days are the same and Rev 12 tells us that the 1260 days and the 3 1/2 times are the same. If 42 months equals 1260 days and 1260 days equals 31/2 times, then obviously 42 months equals 3 1/2 times as well.

Not only that, but it also tells us that the time of the 2 Witnesses, the assembly of the Holy People in the Wilderness and their subsequent harboring of the Woman (who has had the special child) from the face of the Beast and the time of the Beasts reign is all the same time period, which is exactly correct.

Of course this also means that the woman who flees to the wilderness is a real person, and not some symbolic thing that so many have been taught to believe.

And in answer to your last question, the reason we are being told the same time period in three different ways is so that there can be no doubt that this time period is to be taken as literal and not symbolic as many have done anyway. It is Gods way of trying to make people understand that these events in Revelation are real events and the times listed are to be taken for exactly what they say. In other words, there is no way these can be the same thing if any one of these times are not taken literally and this is the whole point. God cannot make it any clearer than that.

Click to expand...

Guestman said:

Daniel 9 is not divided into two different time periods, but is one continuous flow of time, for Daniel 9:24 says that "there are seventy weeks that have been determined upon your people and upon your holy city." Daniel 9:25 then sets out the starting point for events that would be accomplished during the "seventy weeks". Daniel 9:26 lays out when the Messiah would be "cut-off, with nothing for himself " during the middle of the 70th weeks of years, when he was put to death on the torture stake on Nisan 14, 33 C.E.(Dan 9:27b)

Daniel 9:27 follows verse 26, not separated off or breached, as if it were another time period, for it says that "he (the Messiah) must keep the (Abrahamic) covenant in force for the many for one week." Thus, from Jesus baptism and the beginning of the Messiah's public ministry in 29 C.E., to the end of the 70th week in 36 C.E., the Abrahamic covenant was kept in force almost strictly for the Jews and completed the 70th week of years.

Hence, "people of the nations" (Acts 11:1) were now invited into the blessings that will result from the Abrahamic covenant, in which God told Abraham that "by means of your seed all nations of the earth will certainly bless themselves due to the fact that you have listened to my voice.’”(Gen 22:18) Cornelius was the first non Jew to be offered the opportunity to partake of the Abrahamic covenant.(Acts 10)

Because Abraham "listened to (God's) voice", "all nations of the earth will certainly bless themselves", with Gentiles and Jews both having the opportunity to "bless themselves" through exercising faith (not just believing) in Jesus Christ as God's "only-begotten Son."(John 3:16) Until the end of the 70th week, this was not available to the Gentiles. The Jews had the opportunity to be fully "Abraham's seed" when God told them in 1513 B.C.E., after having just left Egypt, that "you yourselves will become to me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation."(Ex 19:6)

The nation of Israel, though failed in becoming "a kingdom of priests and a holy nation". The apostle Paul wrote that the Jews, because "of not knowing the righteousness of God but seeking to establish their own, they did not subject themselves to the righteousness of God."(Rom 10:3) Therefore, Paul said that "not all who spring from Israel are really “Israel.” Neither because they are Abraham’s seed are they all children."(Rom 9:6, 7)

The "people of the nations" were thus invited into the Abrahamic covenant, along with natural Jews, to "bless themselves" with everlasting life as "kings and priests".(Rev 5:9, 10) Abraham's "seed" would now be more than just fleshly descendants of Abraham, when the door was opened for Gentiles in 36 C.E.(as well as Samaritans in 34 C.E.)

The apostle Paul wrote that "the purpose (of removal from the Mosaic Law) was that the blessing of Abraham might come to be by means of Jesus Christ for the nations."(Gal 3:14) Hence, Gentiles could now partake of the Abrahamic covenant, to "bless themselves" for life everlasting as members of God's heavenly kingdom, in which 144,000 are selected.(Rev 7:4; 14:1)

Click to expand...

Retrobyter said:

Shalom, Guestman.


You are neglecting the desolation of the household of Isra'el (Matthew 23:37-39) and the temporary shelving of His people (Romans 11:1-29) while Yeshua` gathers in the Goyim (Gentiles). There has NOT been a permanent change from Isra'el to the entity called the "Church." It is AT BEST a temporary situation in which God is grafting the "wild olive branches" into the domestic Olive Tree of the Messiah's Kingdom, of which the "natural branches" are those who are already IN Isra'el. The whole of the 70th Seven of Dani'el 9 was not put off into the future; HOWEVER, the last half of that Seven WAS, and it was Yeshua` who did it!

Matthew 23:37-39
37 O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, thou that killest the prophets, and stonest them which are sent unto thee, how often would I have gathered thy children together, even as a hen gathereth her chickens under her wings, and ye would not!
38 Behold, your house is left unto you desolate.
39 For I say unto you, Ye shall not see me henceforth, till ye shall say, Blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord.
KJV

It's not right to think that He wrote them off forever, nor that He only grafted into the Olive Tree a few of the "natural branches" as though they had to become part of the "Church!" And, one cannot truly know the extent of the desolation nor when it will end if one doesn't research what that phrase "Blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord" means!

It comes from Psalm 118:26 and the Hebrew is "Baruwkh haba' b'shem YHWH." The words "Baruwkh haba'" means "Welcome (singular)" in Hebrew. The term is in plural at all of Isra'el's airports and sea ports:

http://www.omniglot.com/language/phrases/hebrew.php

So, it is a "welcome mat" to the Messiah, the One who comes "in the name" or "on the authority" of YHWH. When the Jews of Jerusalem in particular can welcome the Messiah back, even if He is the One known as "Jesus the Christ" or "Yeshua` haMashiach," then He will return.

Click to expand...