Imperfections in Quran

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Amy

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Imperfection in Perfect Quran By Kimble K. Smith​
The Quran is the perfect word of Allah and cannot have errors. Written (not literally) by Allah, its perfection has existed since time began. There is a passage in the Quran that describes the mother of Jesus of Nazareth as the sister of Aaron. It goes like this: “At length she brought (the babe) to her people, carrying him (in her arms). They said: ‘O Mary! Truly a strange thing has thou brought! O sister of Aaron, thy father was not a man of evil, nor your mother a woman unchaste!’" (Sura 19:27-28). But Aaron, the brother of Moses, lived and died centuries before Mary, the mother of Jesus was born; and Aaron’s sister was Miriam, not Mary. In the Arabic language, the word for Mary and Miriam is the same word, (Maryam) perhaps the cause of this mistake. It is an error that an Arab of the 7th Century might make, to confuse Mary with Miriam, but not a mistake that the all-knowing Allah would make. The above error was discovered during Muhammad’s lifetime, and it was brought to his attention. He had an answer for it. His explanation went as follows: “The (people of the old age) used to give names (to their persons) after the names of Apostles and pious persons who had gone before them.” (Translation of Sahih Muslim, The Book on General Behaviour (Kitable Al-Adab), Book 025, Number 5326). There is no way that Muhammad could have known that this was the reason that Mary was called “sister of Aaron” in the Quran unless Allah told him. Mary is never addressed anywhere (and for any reason) as “the sister of Aaron” in any of the Jewish or Christian scriptures. So either Allah gave this explanation to Muhammad as the reason why Mary was addressed in the Quran as “the sister of Aaron,” or Muhammad lied. If we believe that Allah told this to Muhammad, then we have to wonder why, to avoid the appearance of an error in the Quran, Allah didn’t explain the use of the phrase “sister of Aaron” right in the Quran in the first place. For example, why didn’t the Quran say something like this: “At length she brought (the babe) to her people, carrying him (in her arms). They said: ‘O Mary! Truly a strange thing has thou brought!’ And addressing her with a pious name of old, they said, ‘O sister of Aaron, thy father was not a man of evil, nor your mother a woman unchaste’"? Surely Allah, being the greatest of all poets, could have found a beautiful, perfect way to explain this issue in the Quran. Allah has many attributes, but “stupid” is not one of them. Why did Allah allow His perfect book to be doubted and attacked for describing Mary as “the sister of Aaron” when Allah could have easily fixed the problem beforehand right in the Quran? Because Allah did not fix this passage, many believe that Muhammad was lying to cover a mistake that he, not Allah, had made. Note that Muhammad’s explanation nullifies all other possible explanations, such as the possibility that the brother of Mary mentioned in the Quran was a different “Aaron” from the brother of Moses. Also note that the Quran is a perfect book, but contains an imperfection that could have easily been corrected within the book itself, creating a contradiction of the most fundamental sort. Surely Allah knew that the phrase, “sister of Aaron” would be read as a mistake by many readers. He knew that the Arabic word for Miriam and Mary was the same word, pointing to an Arab (and who else but Muhammad?) as the likely source of this passage. For all these reasons, Allah had every incentive to correct this problem in the Quran so that it would not look like Muhammad’s mistake; but He didn’t correct it. Therefore, we conclude that Allah did not write the Quran. However it is very likely that this hadith was forged and falsely attributed to Muhammad. It is an attempt of the Muslims to whitewash Muhammad’s error. (among many imperfections this one being not just biblically incorrect but historically as well)
 

Ricky W

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A'udzubillaahiminasysyaithonirrojiimBismillaahirrohmaanirrohiim(Amy;19487)
Imperfection in Perfect Quran By Kimble K. Smith​
The Quran is the perfect word of Allah and cannot have errors. Written (not literally) by Allah, its perfection has existed since time began. There is a passage in the Quran that describes the mother of Jesus of Nazareth as the sister of Aaron. It goes like this: “At length she brought (the babe) to her people, carrying him (in her arms). They said: ‘O Mary! Truly a strange thing has thou brought! O sister of Aaron, thy father was not a man of evil, nor your mother a woman unchaste!’" (Sura 19:27-28). But Aaron, the brother of Moses, lived and died centuries before Mary, the mother of Jesus was born; and Aaron’s sister was Miriam, not Mary. In the Arabic language, the word for Mary and Miriam is the same word, (Maryam) perhaps the cause of this mistake. It is an error that an Arab of the 7th Century might make, to confuse Mary with Miriam, but not a mistake that the all-knowing Allah would make. The above error was discovered during Muhammad’s lifetime, and it was brought to his attention. He had an answer for it. His explanation went as follows: “The (people of the old age) used to give names (to their persons) after the names of Apostles and pious persons who had gone before them.” (Translation of Sahih Muslim, The Book on General Behaviour (Kitable Al-Adab), Book 025, Number 5326). There is no way that Muhammad could have known that this was the reason that Mary was called “sister of Aaron” in the Quran unless Allah told him. Mary is never addressed anywhere (and for any reason) as “the sister of Aaron” in any of the Jewish or Christian scriptures. So either Allah gave this explanation to Muhammad as the reason why Mary was addressed in the Quran as “the sister of Aaron,” or Muhammad lied. If we believe that Allah told this to Muhammad, then we have to wonder why, to avoid the appearance of an error in the Quran, Allah didn’t explain the use of the phrase “sister of Aaron” right in the Quran in the first place. For example, why didn’t the Quran say something like this: “At length she brought (the babe) to her people, carrying him (in her arms). They said: ‘O Mary! Truly a strange thing has thou brought!’ And addressing her with a pious name of old, they said, ‘O sister of Aaron, thy father was not a man of evil, nor your mother a woman unchaste’"? Surely Allah, being the greatest of all poets, could have found a beautiful, perfect way to explain this issue in the Quran. Allah has many attributes, but “stupid” is not one of them. Why did Allah allow His perfect book to be doubted and attacked for describing Mary as “the sister of Aaron” when Allah could have easily fixed the problem beforehand right in the Quran? Because Allah did not fix this passage, many believe that Muhammad was lying to cover a mistake that he, not Allah, had made. Note that Muhammad’s explanation nullifies all other possible explanations, such as the possibility that the brother of Mary mentioned in the Quran was a different “Aaron” from the brother of Moses. Also note that the Quran is a perfect book, but contains an imperfection that could have easily been corrected within the book itself, creating a contradiction of the most fundamental sort. Surely Allah knew that the phrase, “sister of Aaron” would be read as a mistake by many readers. He knew that the Arabic word for Miriam and Mary was the same word, pointing to an Arab (and who else but Muhammad?) as the likely source of this passage. For all these reasons, Allah had every incentive to correct this problem in the Quran so that it would not look like Muhammad’s mistake; but He didn’t correct it. Therefore, we conclude that Allah did not write the Quran. However it is very likely that this hadith was forged and falsely attributed to Muhammad. It is an attempt of the Muslims to whitewash Muhammad’s error. (among many imperfections this one being not just biblically incorrect but historically as well)
Assalamu-alaikum wa rahamatullahi wa barakatuhu:Christian missionaries have been calling Mary addressed as Sister of Aaron(P) a contradiction. Below is the verse:
Mary1927-28.GIF
At length she brought the (babe) to her people, carrying him (in her arms). They said: "O Mary! truly an amazing thing hast thou brought! "O sister of Aaron! Thy father was not a man of evil, nor thy mother a woman unchaste!" [Qur'an 19:27-28]It turns out that Christians in Najran during the time of the Prophet(P) raised a similar objection and it was answered by the Prophet(P). In Sahih Muslim, the hadith related by Mughirah ibn Shu`bah [5326] says: When I came to Najran, they (the Christians of Najran) asked me: You read "O sister of Harun" (i.e. Maryam) in the Qur'an, whereas Moses was born much before Jesus. When I came back to Allah's Messenger(P) I asked him about that, whereupon he said: The (people of the old age) used to give names (to their persons) after the names of Apostle and pious persons who had gone before them.This claim of contradiction is apparently mistaken because it disregards both the Arabic idiom and the context of the verse. In Arabic the word akhun or ukhtun (Underlined with Red colour in the images) carries two meanings. 1. Blood brother or sister and 2. Brotherhood/sisterhood in clan and faith. The above verse has used the word ukhtun in the second sense. This is not unusual as the Qur'an uses the same idiomatic expression in several earlier verses. In chapter 11 verse 78, Prophet Lot refers to the women folk of his community as my daughters.http://www.islamic-awareness.org/Quran/Con...l/Mary11-78.GIF And his people came rushing towards him, and they had been long in the habit of practising abominations. He said: "O my people! Here are my daughters: they are purer for you (if ye marry)! Now fear Allah, and cover me not with shame about my guests! Is there not among you a single right-minded man?" [Qur'an 11:78]In Chapter 7 verses 65, 73 and 85 Prophets Hud, Saleh and Shuaib(P) are referred to as "brothers" of their respective peoples.http://www.islamic-awareness.org/Quran/Con...al/Mary7-65.GIF And unto (the tribe of) A'ad (We sent) their brother, Hud. He said: O my people! Serve Allah. Ye have no other Allah save Him. Will ye not ward off (evil)? [Qur'an 7:65]http://www.islamic-awareness.org/Quran/Con...al/Mary7-73.GIF And to (the tribe of) Thamud (We sent) their brother Salih. He said: O my people! Serve Allah. Ye have no other Allah save Him. A wonder from your Lord hath come unto you. Lo! this is the camel of Allah, a token unto you; so let her feed in Allah's earth, and touch her not with hurt lest painful torment seize you. [Qur'an 7:73]
Mary7-85.GIF
And unto Midian (We sent) their brother, Shu'eyb. He said: O my people! Serve Allah. Ye have no other Allah save Him. Lo! a clear proof hath come unto you from your Lord; so give full measure and full weight and wrong not mankind in their goods, and work not confusion in the earth after the fair ordering thereof. That will be better for you, if ye are believers. [Qur'an 7:85]The people of Lot are also mentioned in chapter 50 verse 13 as the brothers of Lot except for the word "banatii" which means my daughters in 11:78, all other references have used the word "akhun" which means brother.
Mary50-13.GIF
The 'Ad, Pharaoh, the brethren of Lut, (Qur'an 50:13)And in another place, the Qur'an addresses the believers as brothers-in-faith.http://www.islamic-awareness.org/Quran/Con...l/Mary49-10.GIF The Believers are but a single Brotherhood: So make peace and reconciliation between your two (contending) brothers; and fear Allah, that ye may receive Mercy. [Qur'an 49:10]George Sale in his translation of the Qur'an says: From the identity of names it has been generally imagined by Christian writers that the Koran here confounds Mary the mother of Jesus with Mary of Miriam, the sister of Moses and Aaron; which intolerable anachronism, if it were certain, is sufficient of itself to destroy the pretended authority of this book. But though Mohammed may be supposed to have been ignorant enough in ancient history and chronology, to have committed so gross a blunder; yet I do not see how it can be made out from the words of the Koran. For it does not follow, because two persons have the same name, and have each a father and brother who bear the same names, that they must therefore necessarily be the same whereby it manifestly appears that Mohammed well knew and asserted that Moses preceded Jesus several ages. And the commentators accordingly fail not to tell us, that there had passed about one thousand eight hundred years between Amran the father of Moses and Amrean the father of the Virgin Mary: they also make them the sons of different persons; the first, they say, was the son of Yeshar, or Izhar (though he was really his brother) the son of Kahath, the son of Levi; and the other was the son of Matthan, whose genealogy they trace, but in a very corrupt and imperfect manner, up to David and thence to Adam. It must be observed that though the Virgin Mary is called in the Koran, the sister of Aaron, yet she is nowhere called the sister of Moses.[1]In the Bible, Elizabeth was called daughters of Aaron(P). Was she literally a daughter of Aaron? In the days of Herod, King of Judea, there was a priest named Zechari'ah, of the division of Abi'jah; and he had a wife of the daughters of Aaron, and her name was Elizabeth. [Luke 1:5, RSV]Or Jesus(P) was addressed as Son of David in the Bible. Was he literally Son of David(P)? And the crowds that went before him and that followed him shouted, "Hosanna to the Son of David! Blessed is he who comes in the name of the Lord! Hosanna in the highest!" [Matthew 21:9 RSV] But when the chief priests and the scribes saw the wonderful things that he did, and the children crying out in the temple, "Hosanna to the Son of David!" they were indignant; [Matthew 21:15 RSV]If we take that literally then it is also a contradiction in the Bible.And Allah knows best.http://www.islamic-awareness.org/Quran/Con...ernal/mary.htmlWallahu a'lam.
 

Amy

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Yes I understand your point Ricky. Being son of David dose not literally means that one is his son but means decendant.So can you please show us from either Torah, Bible, Quran or historical record (all authentic) of the genealogy of Mary where she is linked to her forefathers and in the ladder Aaron is mentioned?
 

Amy

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As per Bible​
The Line of Jesus Through Mary​
Jesus, when he began his ministry, was about thirty years of age, being the son (as was supposed) of Joseph, the son of Heli *, the son of Matthat, the son of Levi, the son of Melchi, the son of Jannai, the son of Joseph, the son of Mattathias, the son of Amos, the son of Nahum, the son of Esli, the son of Naggai, the son of Maath, the son of Mattathias, the son of Semein, the son of Josech, the son of Joda, the son of Joanan, the son of Rhesa, the son of Zerubbabel, the son of Shealtiel, the son of Neri, the son of Melchi, the son of Addi, the son of Cosam, the son of Elmadam, the son of Er, the son of Joshua, the son of Eliezer, the son of Jorim, the son of Matthat, the son of Levi, the son of Simeon, the son of Judah, the son of Joseph, the son of Jonam, the son of Eliakim, the son of Melea, the son of Menna, the son of Mattatha, the son of Nathan, the son of David, the son of Jesse, the son of Obed, the son of Boaz, the son of Sala, the son of Nahshon, the son of Amminadab, the son of Admin, the son of Arni, the son of Hezron, the son of Perez, the son of Judah, the son of Jacob, the son of Isaac, the son of Abraham, the son of Terah, the son of Nahor, the son of Serug, the son of Reu, the son of Peleg, the son of Eber, the son of Shelah, the son of Cainan, the son of Arphaxad, the son of Shem, the son of Noah, the son of Lamech, the son of Methuselah, the son of Enoch, the son of Jared, the son of Mahalaleel, the son of Cainan, the son of Enos, the son of Seth, the son of Adam, the son of God. (Luke 3:23:38)Heli* was the father in-law of Joseph and the father of Mary.
The Line of Jesus (adoptive) through Joseph
The book of the genealogy of Jesus Christ, the son of David, the son of Abraham. Abraham was the father of Isaac, and Isaac the father of Jacob, and Jacob the father of Judah and his brothers, and Judah the father of Perez and Zerah by Tamar, and Perez the father of Hezron, and Hezron the father of Ram, and Ram the father of Amminadab, and Amminadab the father of Nahshon, and Nahshon the father of Salmon, and Salmon the father of Boaz by Rahab, and Boaz the father of Obed by Ruth, and Obed the father of Jesse, and Jesse the father of David the king. And David was the father of Solomon by the wife of Uriah, and Solomon the father of Rehoboam, and Rehoboam the father of Abijah, and Abijah the father of Asa, and Asa the father of Jehoshaphat, and Jehoshaphat the father of Joram, and Joram the father of Uzziah, and Uzziah the father of Jotham, and Jotham the father of Ahaz, and Ahaz the father of Hezekiah, and Hezekiah the father of Manasseh, and Manasseh the father of Amos, and Amos the father of Josiah, and Josiah the father of Jechoniah and his brothers, at the time of the deportation to Babylon. And after the deportation to Babylon: Jechoniah was the father of Shealtiel, and Shealtiel the father of Zerubbabel, and Zerubbabel the father of Abiud, and Abiud the father of Eliakim, and Eliakim the father of Azor, and Azor the father of Zadok, and Zadok the father of Achim, and Achim the father of Eliud, and Eliud the father of Eleazar, and Eleazar the father of Matthan, and Matthan the father of Jacob, and Jacob the father of Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom Jesus was born, who is called Christ. So all the generations from Abraham to David were fourteen generations, and from David to the deportation to Babylon fourteen generations, and from the deportation to Babylon to the Christ fourteen generations. (Matthew 1:1-17)Mary's geneaology being very detailed yet we see no Aaron here infact in both geneaologies :naughty:
 

Jordan

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Great post sister Amy.God bless you very much. :blessyou:Much love, JagLovest ye in Christ Yahshua our Lord and Saviour.
 

Amy

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(thesuperjag;19499)
Great post sister Amy.God bless you very much. :blessyou:Much love, JagLovest ye in Christ Yahshua our Lord and Saviour.
Just had little time so thought I'll stop by to share something. Found this article interesting
smile.gif
Bless you too !
 

Tyrel

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Ahmen!I like this thread so far. I pray it continues.Just a small note, Mary could not be related to Aaron directly, because Elizabeth was a descendant of Aaron {Luke 1:5}, and they bore John the Baptist, which fulfills prophesy fittingly since Jesus was to be like unto Moses {Deuteronomy 18:15-22; 34:10-12}.in Peace, Tyrel.
 

Tyrel

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bruv

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yeh cheers Ricky, good stuff... and thanks for opening this topic Amy.. I'll definaitely be keeping an eye on it,..
 

Tyrel

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(Biblical Tetragramaton;19502)
Ahmen!I like this thread so far. I pray it continues.Just a small note, Mary could not be related to Aaron directly, because Elizabeth was a descendant of Aaron {Luke 1:5}, and they bore John the Baptist, which fulfills prophesy fittingly since Jesus was to be like unto Moses {Deuteronomy 18:15-22; 34:10-12}.in Peace, Tyrel.
Alright, nobody bit.Mary is the cousin of Elizabeth {Luke 1:36}. Let's observe this a little closer shall we?Let's observe the word for cousin in the Greek;Luke 1:36 – 'Cousin'G4773συγγενήςsuggenēssoong-ghen-ace'From G4862 and G1085; a relative (by blood); by extension a fellow countryman: - cousin, kin (-sfolk, -sman).So you see, Ironically, the same situation arises as with Mary in the Qur'an. Though we can be quite sure in both the cases of the Qur'an and of the Bible, that this means blood relative, there is always a way to take the original language and try to make it sound like it's saying what it clearly isn't.Thus,Some Scholars have suggested that the word be translated as Kinswoman;“Kinswoman (suggenis). Not necessarily cousin, but simply relative.” ~Robertson's Word Picturesor as a Cousiness;“Cousin (συγγενής)The nature of the relationship, however, is unknown. The word is a general term, meaning of the same family. The best texts substitute for it a feminine form, συγγενίς, which is condemned by the grammarians as unclassical, but rightly rendered by Rev., kinswoman. Wyc., cosyness, i.e., cousiness.”However, more generally another theory is supposed. That Mary and Elizabeth, though one was of Judah and the other of Levi, had a connection not through the father, but through their mothers.“Thy cousin Elisabeth - Thy kinswoman, συγγενης. As Elisabeth was of the tribe of Levi, Luk_1:5, and Mary of the tribe of Judah, they could not be relatives but by the mother’s side.” ~ Clark“Luk 1:36 - And behold thy cousin Elisabeth,.... For though Elisabeth was of the daughters of Aaron, or of the tribe of Levi by her father's side, yet might be of the tribe of Judah by her mother's side, and so akin to Mary. The Persic version calls her "aunt by the mother's side": intermarriages between the two tribes of Levi and Judah were frequent; nor were they at all contrary to the intention of that law, that forbid the tribes to intermarry, which was to preserve the inheritance in each tribe, since the tribe of Levi had none at all. Though she might be called her cousin in a more general sense; it being usual with the Jews to call all of their own nation their kinsmen and kinswomen, according to the flesh: but the former sense seems more agreeable; and so Mary is directed to her own family, and to her own relations, and known friends, for a sign, by which her faith might be confirmed, in what the angel had said unto her...” ~ Gill“Luk 1:36 - And behold, thy cousin Elisabeth - Though Elisabeth was of the house of Aaron, and Mary of the house of David, by the fathers side, they might be related by their mothers. For the law only forbad heiresses marrying into another tribe. And so other persons continually intermarried; particularly the families of David and of Levi.” ~WesleyAll previous sources can be found with or on E-sword.In the end, yes we can take the word 'kin' and in both Arabic, and Greek, and most languages, interpret it as family of varying kind. However, the context in which the author presents the word should be considered the most important clue as to it's meaning. Just as many Catholic scholars assert, (I believe mistakenly), that Jesus had no actual 'brother' named James, but simply a relative, so also do many Muslims present the argument that Mary was not denoted as the sister of Aaron in the Qur'an {Surah 19:27}. The context is direct family, as it speaks first of the brother, then of the mother and father.(Ricky W;19493)
George Sale in his translation of the Qur'an says: From the identity of names it has been generally imagined by Christian writers that the Koran here confounds Mary the mother of Jesus with Mary of Miriam, the sister of Moses and Aaron; which intolerable anachronism, if it were certain, is sufficient of itself to destroy the pretended authority of this book. But though Mohammed may be supposed to have been ignorant enough in ancient history and chronology, to have committed so gross a blunder; yet I do not see how it can be made out from the words of the Koran. For it does not follow, because two persons have the same name, and have each a father and brother who bear the same names, that they must therefore necessarily be the same whereby it manifestly appears that Mohammed well knew and asserted that Moses preceded Jesus several ages. And the commentators accordingly fail not to tell us, that there had passed about one thousand eight hundred years between Amran the father of Moses and Amrean the father of the Virgin Mary: they also make them the sons of different persons; the first, they say, was the son of Yeshar, or Izhar (though he was really his brother) the son of Kahath, the son of Levi; and the other was the son of Matthan, whose genealogy they trace, but in a very corrupt and imperfect manner, up to David and thence to Adam. It must be observed that though the Virgin Mary is called in the Koran, the sister of Aaron, yet she is nowhere called the sister of Moses.[1]
The Problem with this is that there is no record of Mary ever having had a brother named Aaron, in the Gospels, or in the Gnostic texts, or in any source that I have ever read. This argument is a kin {no put intended} to saying that if Jesus was said to be the blood brother of Moses, with Mary as their mother, Moses doesn't necessarily mean the moses of the Old Testament. While Moses might not be reserved for the Moses of the Torah, it would seem quite odd to name 'Moses' with a seemingly unambiguous connotation as the Brother of Jesus, unless it was that Moses which it was referring to.~Tyrel
 

Ricky W

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A'udzubillaahiminasysyaithonirrojiimBismillaahirrohmaanirrohiim(Amy)
Yes I understand your point Ricky. Being son of David dose not literally means that one is his son but means decendant.So can you please show us from either Torah, Bible, Quran or historical record (all authentic) of the genealogy of Mary where she is linked to her forefathers and in the ladder Aaron is mentioned?
("Ricky W")
This claim of contradiction is apparently mistaken because it disregards both the Arabic idiom and the context of the verse. In Arabic the word akhun or ukhtun (Underlined with Red colour in the images) carries two meanings.1. Blood brother or sister and2. Brotherhood/sisterhood in clan and faith.
("Ricky W")
It turns out that Christians in Najran during the time of the Prophet(P) raised a similar objection and it was answered by the Prophet(P). In Sahih Muslim, the hadith related by Mughirah ibn Shu`bah [5326] says:When I came to Najran, they (the Christians of Najran) asked me: You read "O sister of Harun" (i.e. Maryam) in the Qur'an, whereas Moses was born much before Jesus. When I came back to Allah's Messenger(P) I asked him about that, whereupon he said: The (people of the old age) used to give names (to their persons) after the names of Apostle and pious persons who had gone before them.
Wallahu a'lam.
 

Ricky W

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A'udzubillaahiminasysyaithonirrojiimBismillaahirrohmaanirrohiimThis is only my analysis :The name of Mary in Hebrew was Miriam.http://www.christiananswers.net/dictionary...herofjesus.htmlMary (mother of Jesus)Hebrew: Miriam.........And about Miriamhttp://www.christiananswers.net/dictionary/miriam.htmlMiriamMeaning: their rebellion 1. The sister of Moses and Aaron (Ex. 2:4-10; 1 Chr. 6:3)......And what we should take notes, on the Quran verse Surah 19:27-28, God was quote on a Jew saying.In my opinion those Jew which talking to Mary was actually has pointed her name but not using her name literally, the Jew was using the relative of family on the person which will point to the name, that has the same name that is Maryam/Mary/Miriam.Now let us take look what would it says regarding on my analysis :Yusuf Ali:[019:027] At length she brought the (babe) to her people, carrying him (in her arms). They said: "O Mary! truly an amazing thing hast thou brought![019:028] "O sister of Aaron! Thy father was not a man of evil, nor thy mother a woman unchaste!"Dr. Munir Munshey (one of [url="http://www.answering-christianity.com's]www.answering-christianity.com's[/url] authors):[019:027] She returned to her folks carrying him (the baby). They said, “Oh Mary! What an unprecedented act have you committed!”[019:028] “Oh sister of Haroon! Your father was not wicked! Nor was your mother a loose woman!”Arabic (from right to left):‏19:27 فاتت به قومها تحمله قالوا يامريم لقد جئت شيئا فريا‏19:28 يااخت هارون ماكان ابوك امرأ سوء وماكانت امك بغيا Now regarding on my analysis using bible source above.Where the name of Mary in Hebrew was Miriam. And the name of Miriam was taken from name sister of Moses and Aaron.Or we can say that the name "Miriam/Maryam/Mary" was "sister of Aaron".Now if we are changing the word in to Mariam in Quran translation below, is it would have the same result ? Let give it a try.[019:028] "O Mary! Thy father was not a man of evil, nor thy mother a woman unchaste!"Well that's still fit isn't ? And it's not contradict also.And the additional value that i can get on the verse which "contradict" was, The name of Mary (Maryam) was actually taken from the name of brother of Aroon (Harun). And perhaps just perhaps, with those verse of Quran, God want to tell us, that the name of Mother of Jesus was taken from sister of Aroon(Harun)'s name.And what has been said from prophet Muhammad s.a.w. was fit as well.God Know BestsWallahu a'lam.
 

Christina

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Mays genealogy is in Luke 3:23 it is shown through her fatherMary was a direct descendant of King David which gave Jesus the right to ascend the Jewish throne, both through Mary and through adoption by his foster father, Joseph. Mary’s genealogy is supplied in Luke 3:23-38. Dr. Henry Morris explains the genealogy in Luke:“Joseph was clearly the son of Jacob (Matthew 1:16, so this verse [Luke 3:23 - says “son of Heli”] should be understood to mean “son-in-law of Heli.” Thus, the genealogy of Christ in Luke is actually the genealogy of Mary, while Matthew gives that of Joseph. Actually, the word “son” is not in the original, so it would be legitimate to supply either “son” or “son-in-law” in this context. Since Matthew and Luke clearly record much common material, it is certain that neither one could unknowingly incorporate such a flagrant apparent mistake as the wrong genealogy in his record. As it is, however, the two genealogies show that both parents were descendants of David—Joseph through Solomon (Matthew 1:7-15), thus inheriting the legal right to the throne of David, and Mary through Nathan (Luke 3:23-31), her line thus carrying the seed of David, since Solomon’s line had been refused the throne because of Jechoniah’s sin” [Dr. Henry M. Morris, The Defender’s Study Bible, note for Luke 3:23 (Iowa Falls, Iowa: World Publishing, Inc., 1995).]. Although Jesus was clearly legally related to both parents (to Mary, by being born from her, and to Joseph by legal adoption), was he genetically related to them or to his brothers and sisters?For thousands of years, every human child has been born with an inherited sin nature and sinful flesh (Romans 8:3). This is a result of our sinful first parents, Adam and Eve to whom we are all genetically related. Each generation (without exception) has sinned (Rom. 3:23) and passed on its sinful nature and the curse of death, to each succeeding generation (the biblical doctrine of imputation of sin - Romans 5:12-19). There is only one exception in history. Although Jesus grew in the womb of Mary, in the same manner as any baby, he was different from all other babies. It appears that he was not genetically related to either Mary or Joseph, for both had an inherited sin nature. Jesus was sinless, and one may reasonably assume without genetic flaw, since he was to serve as the spotless and sacrificial Lamb of God.Ever since the Creation, each subsequent life has been created at the moment of conception. Scientifically, the new entity begins at the moment the DNA of man and woman combine. This was not the case with Jesus. As a spirit and part of the Trinity, Jesus existed before the Creation of the world. In fact, John reveals that he is the Creator (John 1).Furthermore, the physical body of Jesus as born in Bethlehem was clearly a special creation of God, placed in Mary’s womb. This is the biblical doctrine of the Virgin Birth.Thus, neither Christ’s spirit nor his body must have resulted from the DNA of Mary’s egg or from any man’s sperm. Both would have contained inherited genetic defects and the sin nature. As Scripture tells us, Jesus was truly the Second Adam. The first Adam was a special creation of God (not related to any human being), and so was the second Adam (Romans 5:12-19). Jesus was just as fully human as the first Adam. And just like the first Adam, he had no sin nature, no inherited sin, no sinful flesh, which has always been passed from one generation to the next since Adam and Eve’s sin. He was absolutely pure and without sin—from the day he was born, till the day he died. He had to be—he was the Lamb of God, without blemish or spot, sacrificed for sins (John 1:29).
 

Ricky W

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A'udzubillaahiminasysyaithonirrojiimBismillaahirrohmaanirrohiimI'm sorry for i editing my previous one, i hope if it in one place could get more better for understand it
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.Wallaahu a'lam.
 

Amy

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(Ricky W;19538)
A'udzubillaahiminasysyaithonirrojiimBismillaahirrohmaanirrohiim1.Brotherhood/sisterhood in clan and faith.2.The (people of the old age) used to give names (to their persons) after the names of Apostle and pious persons who had gone before themWallahu a'lam.
1. Why did God need to refer to Mary as from Aaron's clan? Whereas their were much greater people in her clan that she was a direct decendant of and could be refered to or should be refered as per prophecies instead of Aaron who was a brother of a prophet and not even a prophet himself. Seems like common-sense is not common but lame-excuses are.2. I need not say more if one can not see the difference of what people say compared to what Allah said in Quran.
 

Amy

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(Ricky W;19542)
A'udzubillaahiminasysyaithonirrojiimBismillaahirrohmaanirrohiimThis is only my analysis :The name of Mary in Hebrew was Miriam.http://www.christiananswers.net/dictionary...herofjesus.htmlMary (mother of Jesus)Hebrew: Miriam.........And about Miriamhttp://www.christiananswers.net/dictionary/miriam.htmlMiriamMeaning: their rebellion 1. The sister of Moses and Aaron (Ex. 2:4-10; 1 Chr. 6:3)......And what we should take notes, on the Quran verse Surah 19:27-28, God was quote on a Jew saying.In my opinion those Jew which talking to Mary was actually has pointed her name but not using her name literally, the Jew was using the relative of family on the person which will point to the name, that has the same name that is Maryam/Mary/Miriam.Now let us take look what would it says regarding on my analysis :Yusuf Ali:[019:027] At length she brought the (babe) to her people, carrying him (in her arms). They said: "O Mary! truly an amazing thing hast thou brought![019:028] "O sister of Aaron! Thy father was not a man of evil, nor thy mother a woman unchaste!"Dr. Munir Munshey (one of [url="http://www.answering-christianity.com's]www.answering-christianity.com's[/url] authors):[019:027] She returned to her folks carrying him (the baby). They said, “Oh Mary! What an unprecedented act have you committed!”[019:028] “Oh sister of Haroon! Your father was not wicked! Nor was your mother a loose woman!”Arabic (from right to left):‏19:27 فاتت به قومها تحمله قالوا يامريم لقد جئت شيئا فريا‏19:28 يااخت هارون ماكان ابوك امرأ سوء وماكانت امك بغيا Now regarding on my analysis using bible source above.Where the name of Mary in Hebrew was Miriam. And the name of Miriam was taken from name sister of Moses and Aaron.Or we can say that the name "Miriam/Maryam/Mary" was "sister of Aaron".Now if we are changing the word in to Mariam in Quran translation below, is it would have the same result ? Let give it a try.[019:028] "O Mary! Thy father was not a man of evil, nor thy mother a woman unchaste!"Well that's still fit isn't ? And it's not contradict also.And the additional value that i can get on the verse which "contradict" was, The name of Mary (Maryam) was actually taken from the name of brother of Aroon (Harun). And perhaps just perhaps, with those verse of Quran, God want to tell us, that the name of Mother of Jesus was taken from sister of Aroon(Harun)'s name.And what has been said from prophet Muhammad s.a.w. was fit as well.God Know BestsWallahu a'lam.
This is not of much significance as whether you call her Mary or miriam the significance of the article shared is that Mary the mother of Christ is not a decendant of Aaron.
 

Amy

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(kriss;19544)
Mays genealogy is in Luke 3:23 it is shown through her fatherMary was a direct descendant of King David which gave Jesus the right to ascend the Jewish throne, both through Mary and through adoption by his foster father, Joseph. Mary’s genealogy is supplied in Luke 3:23-38. Dr. Henry Morris explains the genealogy in Luke:“Joseph was clearly the son of Jacob (Matthew 1:16, so this verse [Luke 3:23 - says “son of Heli”] should be understood to mean “son-in-law of Heli.” Thus, the genealogy of Christ in Luke is actually the genealogy of Mary, while Matthew gives that of Joseph. Actually, the word “son” is not in the original, so it would be legitimate to supply either “son” or “son-in-law” in this context. Since Matthew and Luke clearly record much common material, it is certain that neither one could unknowingly incorporate such a flagrant apparent mistake as the wrong genealogy in his record. As it is, however, the two genealogies show that both parents were descendants of David—Joseph through Solomon (Matthew 1:7-15), thus inheriting the legal right to the throne of David, and Mary through Nathan (Luke 3:23-31), her line thus carrying the seed of David, since Solomon’s line had been refused the throne because of Jechoniah’s sin” [Dr. Henry M. Morris, The Defender’s Study Bible, note for Luke 3:23 (Iowa Falls, Iowa: World Publishing, Inc., 1995).]. Although Jesus was clearly legally related to both parents (to Mary, by being born from her, and to Joseph by legal adoption), was he genetically related to them or to his brothers and sisters?For thousands of years, every human child has been born with an inherited sin nature and sinful flesh (Romans 8:3). This is a result of our sinful first parents, Adam and Eve to whom we are all genetically related. Each generation (without exception) has sinned (Rom. 3:23) and passed on its sinful nature and the curse of death, to each succeeding generation (the biblical doctrine of imputation of sin - Romans 5:12-19). There is only one exception in history. Although Jesus grew in the womb of Mary, in the same manner as any baby, he was different from all other babies. It appears that he was not genetically related to either Mary or Joseph, for both had an inherited sin nature. Jesus was sinless, and one may reasonably assume without genetic flaw, since he was to serve as the spotless and sacrificial Lamb of God.Ever since the Creation, each subsequent life has been created at the moment of conception. Scientifically, the new entity begins at the moment the DNA of man and woman combine. This was not the case with Jesus. As a spirit and part of the Trinity, Jesus existed before the Creation of the world. In fact, John reveals that he is the Creator (John 1).Furthermore, the physical body of Jesus as born in Bethlehem was clearly a special creation of God, placed in Mary’s womb. This is the biblical doctrine of the Virgin Birth.Thus, neither Christ’s spirit nor his body must have resulted from the DNA of Mary’s egg or from any man’s sperm. Both would have contained inherited genetic defects and the sin nature. As Scripture tells us, Jesus was truly the Second Adam. The first Adam was a special creation of God (not related to any human being), and so was the second Adam (Romans 5:12-19). Jesus was just as fully human as the first Adam. And just like the first Adam, he had no sin nature, no inherited sin, no sinful flesh, which has always been passed from one generation to the next since Adam and Eve’s sin. He was absolutely pure and without sin—from the day he was born, till the day he died. He had to be—he was the Lamb of God, without blemish or spot, sacrificed for sins (John 1:29).
Thank you sister Kriss for sharing this and Amen to Dr. Henry Morris article
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Ricky W

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A'udzubillaahiminasysyaithonirrojiimBismillaahirrohmaanirrohiim(Amy)
1. Why did God need to refer to Mary as from Aaron's clan? Whereas their were much greater people in her clan that she was a direct decendant of and could be refered to or should be refered as per prophecies instead of Aaron who was a brother of a prophet and not even a prophet himself. Seems like common-sense is not common but lame-excuses are.2. I need not say more if one can not see the difference of what people say compared to what Allah said in Quran.
As said in my analysis, God was quoting the Jews on conversation with Mary, it is not God who saying so, but God pick up the conversation on what happen by the time Mary got birth. And it is Jews who said like that way by the time Mary got birth.And as said in my analysis, Mary in Hebrew was Miriam. Where the name of Miriam was taken from the name of Moses and Aaron sister. So the name of Mary was the name of sister of Aaron as well. It's the same name.So by the time Jews was talking to Mary, the Jews was using word "Sister of Aaron", instead of word Mary which is has the same word of result. That is why, prophet Muhammad s.a.w. giving the explaination regarding on the hadith in that link. Then you will see the meaning of that verse regarding on what prophet Muhammad s.a.w. has said.Wallahu a'lam.