Total Depravity: Is it biblical?

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StanJ

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There's no doubt that some humans are totally depraved and as such scripture identifies some of them but as a petal of the tulip doctrine it is not upheld in Scripture.
Matthew 7
7 “Ask and it will be given to you; seek and you will find; knock and the door will be opened for you. 8 For everyone who asks receives, and the one who seeks finds, and to the one who knocks, the door will be opened. 9 Is there anyone among you who, if his son asks for bread, will give him a stone? 10 Or if he asks for a fish, will give him a snake? 11 If you then, although you are evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more will your Father in heaven give good gifts to those who ask him!
 

justaname

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StanJ said:
There's no doubt that some humans are totally depraved and as such scripture identifies some of them but as a petal of the tulip doctrine it is not upheld in Scripture.
Matthew 7
7 “Ask and it will be given to you; seek and you will find; knock and the door will be opened for you. 8 For everyone who asks receives, and the one who seeks finds, and to the one who knocks, the door will be opened. 9 Is there anyone among you who, if his son asks for bread, will give him a stone? 10 Or if he asks for a fish, will give him a snake? 11 If you then, although you are evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more will your Father in heaven give good gifts to those who ask him!
This verse speaks nothing to the depravity of man.

This verse describes the willingness of God, yet speaks nothing to the willingness of man.
 

OzSpen

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StanJ said:
There's no doubt that some humans are totally depraved and as such scripture identifies some of them but as a petal of the tulip doctrine it is not upheld in Scripture.
Matthew 7
7 “Ask and it will be given to you; seek and you will find; knock and the door will be opened for you. 8 For everyone who asks receives, and the one who seeks finds, and to the one who knocks, the door will be opened. 9 Is there anyone among you who, if his son asks for bread, will give him a stone? 10 Or if he asks for a fish, will give him a snake? 11 If you then, although you are evil, know how to give good gifts to your children, how much more will your Father in heaven give good gifts to those who ask him!
Stan,

I need your help to see how Matt 7:7-11 relates to depravity or non-depravity. Am I missing something?

Who are the 'some humans' who are 'totally depraved'. Where does Scripture support that idea?

Oz
 

OzSpen

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justaname said:
Romans 5:16-17 contextually satisfies what the apostle is conveying concerning Christ's work being more significant than Adam's sin. One sin brought about judgment in which God is glorified, but the work of Jesus produced a free gift that abounds in glory. The gift, that arose from many transgressions, is righteousness resulting in justification. How much more glorious is this work of Christ! The reconciliation Christ achieved is available to all men (John 3:17).

Concerning the gospel response it is clear the NT implies all humanity are responsible for their choice concerning the Gospel (John 3:18). The capacity or ability for men to accept the Gospel is there, evidenced that some do believe, but the natural desire of man is to reject the God (John 3:20, Matthew 23:37) because man is evil even from his youth (Genesis 8:21, Psalm 58:3, Matthew 7:11).

1 Corinthians 12:3b
and no one can say, “Jesus is Lord,” except by the Holy Spirit.

Here is a cut and paste from:
http://traviscarden.com/total-depravity-verse-list

Can the natural man comprehend the gospel or come to saving knowledge of God on his own?
  • 1 Corinthians 2:14 - The natural person does not accept the things of the Spirit of God, for they are folly to him, and he is not able to understand them because they are spiritually discerned.
  • 2 Corinthians 4:3-4 - our gospel is veiled… to those who are perishing. In their case the god of this world has blinded the minds of the unbelievers, to keep them from seeing the light of the gospel of the glory of Christ, who is the image of God.
  • 1 Corinthians 1:18,21-24 - For the word of the cross is folly to those who are perishing, but to us who are being saved it is the power of God. For since, in the wisdom of God, the world did not know God through wisdom, it pleased God through the folly of what we preach to save those who believe. For Jews demand signs and Greeks seek wisdom, but we preach Christ crucified, a stumbling block to Jews and folly to Gentiles
  • Deuteronomy 29:2-4 - And Moses summoned all Israel and said to them: “You have seen all that the Lord did before your eyes in the land of Egypt, to Pharaoh and to all his servants and to all his land, the great trials that your eyes saw, the signs, and those great wonders. But to this day the Lord has not given you a heart to understand or eyes to see or ears to hear.”
  • Matthew 11:27 - “no one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and anyone to whom the Son chooses to reveal him.”
c.f. Psalm 119:18; Proverbs 4:19; Isaiah 42:6-7; Hosea 14:9; Matthew 16:17; John 8:43; Acts 22:14, 26:18; Ephesians 4:17-19; 2 Corinthians 2:15-16; 2 Corinthians 4:3-4; 1 John 5:20;


Can men of themselves accept God’s gift of salvation? Do men choose God or come to Him on their own?
  • John 3:27 - John answered, “A person cannot receive even one thing unless it is given him from heaven.”
  • John 14:16-17 - “And I will ask the Father, and he will give you another Helper, to be with you forever, even the Spirit of truth, whom the world cannot receive, because it neither sees him nor knows him.”
  • John 1:12-13 - But to all who did receive him, who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God, who were born, not of blood nor of the will of the flesh nor of the will of man, but of God.
  • John 6:44,65 - “No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws him. And I will raise him up on the last day.” And he said, “This is why I told you that no one can come to me unless it is granted him by the Father.”
  • Romans 9:16 - So then it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy.
  • Romans 11:35-36 - “Or who has given a gift to him that he might be repaid?” For from him and through him and to him are all things.
  • 1 Corinthians 1:30 - And because of him you are in Christ Jesus
  • Philippians 2:13 - for it is God who works in you, both to will and to work for his good pleasure.
c.f. Jonah 2:9; Zephaniah 3:9; John 15:16; 1 Corinthians 15:10; Philippians 1:6; James 1:18
justaname,

You seem to have missed out one important verse from Jesus: 'And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself' (John 12:32 NIV).

Oz
 

justaname

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OzSpen said:
justaname,

You seem to have missed out one important verse from Jesus: 'And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself' (John 12:32 NIV).

Oz
Context directs Jesus is speaking about judgement in this verse. All men will stand before the Judge.

31 Now is the judgment of this world; now will the ruler of this world be cast out.
32 And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself." - John 12:31-32

Continuing in the thread of judgement, Jesus does say He does not judge the nonbeliever (12:47) yet He follows by qualifying...

48 The one who rejects me and does not receive my words has a judge; the word that I have spoken will judge him on the last day.
49 For I have not spoken on my own authority, but the Father who sent me has himself given me a commandment-what to say and what to speak. - John 12:48-49

Jesus atones for sin, but unbelief condemns. All men will stand before their Maker and give an account. All things were created through Jesus. Again without question Jesus is speaking about judgement and His authority.


Speaking more to the subject of the human condition the chapter continues...

37 Though he had done so many signs before them, they still did not believe in him,
38 so that the word spoken by the prophet Isaiah might be fulfilled: "Lord, who has believed what he heard from us, and to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?"
39 Therefore they could not believe. For again Isaiah said,
40 "He has blinded their eyes and hardened their heart, lest they see with their eyes, and understand with their heart, and turn, and I would heal them." - John 12:37-40

Zero in on verse 39...

The gospel is veiled to those who are perishing. It is our commission to be salt and light in this dark world. We continue to give witness and testimony to the glory God has yet to reveal in which we who believe are partakers. We in ourselves are powerless in bringing about belief for in our unbelief the Gospel is folly. Yet in His mercy some do come to belief despite ourselves. God is no respecter of persons, therefore all creeds and colors, all social classes both great and small, people from every nation will come. But none can come unless it is granted by the Father. The Gospel is glory to those who believe, and condemnation to those who do not.

Glory be to God in the highest.
 

OzSpen

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justaname said:
Context directs Jesus is speaking about judgement in this verse. All men will stand before the Judge.

31 Now is the judgment of this world; now will the ruler of this world be cast out.
32 And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself." - John 12:31-32

Continuing in the thread of judgement, Jesus does say He does not judge the nonbeliever (12:47) yet He follows by qualifying...

48 The one who rejects me and does not receive my words has a judge; the word that I have spoken will judge him on the last day.
49 For I have not spoken on my own authority, but the Father who sent me has himself given me a commandment-what to say and what to speak. - John 12:48-49

Jesus atones for sin, but unbelief condemns. All men will stand before their Maker and give an account. All things were created through Jesus. Again without question Jesus is speaking about judgement and His authority.


Speaking more to the subject of the human condition the chapter continues...

37 Though he had done so many signs before them, they still did not believe in him,
38 so that the word spoken by the prophet Isaiah might be fulfilled: "Lord, who has believed what he heard from us, and to whom has the arm of the Lord been revealed?"
39 Therefore they could not believe. For again Isaiah said,
40 "He has blinded their eyes and hardened their heart, lest they see with their eyes, and understand with their heart, and turn, and I would heal them." - John 12:37-40

Zero in on verse 39...

The gospel is veiled to those who are perishing. It is our commission to be salt and light in this dark world. We continue to give witness and testimony to the glory God has yet to reveal in which we who believe are partakers. We in ourselves are powerless in bringing about belief for in our unbelief the Gospel is folly. Yet in His mercy some do come to belief despite ourselves. God is no respecter of persons, therefore all creeds and colors, all social classes both great and small, people from every nation will come. But none can come unless it is granted by the Father. The Gospel is glory to those who believe, and condemnation to those who do not.

Glory be to God in the highest.
justaname,

John 12:31-33 (NIV) states, 'Now is the time for judgment on this world; now the prince of this world will be driven out. 32 And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself.” 33 He said this to show the kind of death he was going to die'.

Krisis (judgment) is spoken of also in John 3:17, 19-21; 5:22-30; 7:24; 8:16. While there will be judgment coming at the consummation of the age, these references that I've just given demonstrate that judgment began with Christ's first coming. Since he is 'the light of the world' (John 8:12 NIV), those who follow Jesus will never walk in darkness. The rest walk in darkness - a judgment.

This judgment that Jesus began with his first coming forced a division between those who pursued evil deeds and those who accepted and embraced the light. In a similar fashion, Jesus' death and resurrection (passion/glorification) draws people to himself (John 12:32 NIV) but it is also demonstrating 'judgment on this world' - not the last judgment, but judgment by rejecting the Son, which was rejecting God Himself (see John 5:23 NIV)

Remember the judgment expressed in John 5:24 (NIV), 'Very truly I tell you, whoever hears my word and believes him who sent me has eternal life and will not be judged but has crossed over from death to life'. This is judgment in this world that was inaugurated by Christ's death and resurrection and the bringing of eternal life to those who believe.

At the cross, the world thought capital punishment judgment was being passed on Jesus but in the cross, Jesus was passing judgment on the world of sinners who were in rebellion against God.

So, commentator D A Carson, could write about John 12:31 (NIV), as context for John 12:32, 'Now is the time for judgment on this world',

Thus Jesus’ passion/glorification signifies judgment both positively and negatively. As far as “the world” is concerned, however, it can only be negative. There can be no further reprieve, for there can be no hope for those who reject the one Person whose death/exaltation is the epiphany of God’s gracious, saving self-disclosure (Carson 1991:443).
Therefore, John 12:32 (NIV) is affirming Jesus' drawing all people to himself, in a judgment associated with his first coming, and believing or not believing in Him,

Oz

Works consulted

Carson, D A 1991. The Gospel according to John. Leicester, England / Grand Rapids, Michigan: Inter-Varsity Press / William B. Eerdmans Publishing Company.
 

Netchaplain

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I believe Total Depravity is in reference to the nature of man which is inherent from Adam, and "is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be" (Rom 8:7). This is the purpose of a completely different nature, for the Adamic nature cannot change!

Blessings!
 

OzSpen

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NetChaplain said:
I believe Total Depravity is in reference to the nature of man which is inherent from Adam, and "is not subject to the law of God, neither indeed can be" (Rom 8:7). This is the purpose of a completely different nature, for the Adamic nature cannot change!

Blessings!
Are you saying that your view of the Adamic nature has no association with 2 Cor 5:17 (ESV): 'Therefore, if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creation. The old has passed away; behold, the new has come'?
 

Netchaplain

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OzSpen said:
Are you saying that your view of the Adamic nature has no association with 2 Cor 5:17 (ESV): 'Therefore, if anyone is in Christ, he is a new creation. The old has passed away; behold, the new has come'?
Hi OS - The phrase "passed away" in this passage is in reference to the sinful nature's guilt association and its "reign" and dominion" (Rom 6:12, 14). The old man is only restrained by crucifixion from these activities (Rom 6:6), not eradicated from the believer.
Eradication would mean we have no more sin, which would result in never sinning again, which of course is not truth.

Blessings!
 

OzSpen

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NetChaplain said:
Hi OS - The phrase "passed away" in this passage is in reference to the sinful nature's guilt association and its "reign" and dominion" (Rom 6:12, 14). The old man is only restrained by crucifixion from these activities (Rom 6:6), not eradicated from the believer.
Eradication would mean we have no more sin, which would result in never sinning again, which of course is not truth.

Blessings!


Hi OS - The phrase "passed away" in this passage is in reference to the sinful nature's guilt association and its "reign" and dominion" (Rom 6:12, 14). The old man is only restrained by crucifixion from these activities (Rom 6:6), not eradicated from the believer.
Eradication would mean we have no more sin, which would result in never sinning again, which of course is not truth.

Blessings!

Your interpretation of the sinful nature's guilt association' being 'passed away' is nowhere mentioned in 2 Cor 5:17. That's your imposition on the text.

What do these two verses from Romans 6:6-7 (NIV) teach? '6 For we know that our old self was crucified with him so that the body ruled by sin might be done away with, that we should no longer be slaves to sin— 7 because anyone who has died has been set free from sin'.

So how can the 'old self' be 'set free from sin' when you and I know that the believer continues to sin and needs to seek forgiveness from God and people for that sin? I think verse 6 answers that question: The Christian should no longer be 'slaves to sin', i.e. unable to do anything else but sin because of a commitment to continue sinning. That's my understanding of diabolos - (slave), infinitive form in Rom 6:6 (NIV).

Oz
 

justaname

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OzSpen said:
This judgment that Jesus began with his first coming forced a division between those who pursued evil deeds and those who accepted and embraced the light. In a similar fashion, Jesus' death and resurrection (passion/glorification) draws people to himself (John 12:32 NIV) but it is also demonstrating 'judgment on this world' - not the last judgment, but judgment by rejecting the Son, which was rejecting God Himself (see John 5:23 NIV)
This bit is the only portion where we may have a slight disagreement in your post unless I am misinterpreting your contention. There is nothing in the context of the verse you presented (John 12:32) that omits the possibility that Jesus is speaking about judgement once one dies. (Hebrews 9:27 also John 5:22-24) Through this view the thought of "all people" is to be interpreted as individuals rather than all people groups. The fact that there is only one Mediator (1 Timothy 2:5) affirms the condition of any possibility of salvation is only through the person and work of Jesus (John 14:6) thus this "drawing of all people" signifies some people unto condemnation and some people unto salvation.

For Christ also died for sins once for all, the just for the unjust, so that He might bring us to God, having been put to death in the flesh, but made alive in the spirit; in which also He went and made proclamation to the spirits now in prison,
1 Pe 3:18-19

see also Ephesians 4:9-10, Zechariah 9:11, Psalm 49:15
 

Netchaplain

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OzSpen said:
Your interpretation of the sinful nature's guilt association' being 'passed away' is nowhere mentioned in 2 Cor 5:17. That's your imposition on the text.
I must admit, what I was trying to share does not relate directly to that passage but only indirectly. Please excuse me. I see it that the old that has passed away is the control the old nature had on the believer in causing a willful desire for sin, which no longer can ever exist again due to the Cross.

To me, to desire sin is to be ruled by it and to willfully perform it is to be dominated by it.

OzSpen said:
So how can the 'old self' be 'set free from sin' when you and I know that the believer continues to sin and needs to seek forgiveness from God and people for that sin? I think verse 6 answers that question: The Christian should no longer be 'slaves to sin', i.e. unable to do anything else but sin because of a commitment to continue sinning. That's my understanding of diabolos - (slave), infinitive form in Rom 6:6 (NIV).
I do not see Scripture teaching that we can be without the sin nature nor live without ever sinning. The point is that the sins of the saints are never their desire, i.e. sinning as an unwilling "captive" (Rom 7:23) instead of it being a willing desire (natural man).

Paul said in his reborn state that he still serves sin with the part that he no longer is joined with--the flesh (sinful nature, not the physical body); but serves God with the part that is himself, which is the new nature (Rom 7:25), because he is no longer "in the flesh," e.g. sinful nature (Rom 8:9).

The intention of 1 John 3:9 concerning that those who are born again do not sin is in reference to that part of us that sins not--the new nature.
 

OzSpen

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NetChaplain said:
The intention of 1 John 3:9 concerning that those who are born again do not sin is in reference to that part of us that sins not--the new nature.
Net Chaplain,

There is no indication in this verse that it refers to those who do not sin in reference to the new nature. That's your interpretation. The fact is that when we look to the Greek text, we don't have to create an argument from silence - which is a logical fallacy.

The KJV of 1 John 3:9 (KJV) is a bad translation: 'Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God'. Even the NRSV has fallen into this trap of not conveying the meaning of the Greek accurately with its translation, 'Those who have been born of God do not sin'.

The ESV gives a better understanding of the meaning of this verse, 1 John 3:9 (ESV), 'No one born of God makes a practice of sinning, for God’s seed abides in him; and he cannot keep on sinning, because he has been born of God'.

The reason why the KJV, NRSV and HCSB do not accurately portray what the Greek says is because the verb used is poiei, the present, active, indicative of poiew (I do). Being present tense, this refers to continuous or continual action of doing something. Since the verb is negated with ou and refers to the noun, hamartia (sin), the ESV translation is a good indication of the meaning, 'makes a practice of sinning'. Literally, it means, 'Everyone, having been begotten of God, continually/continuously does not sin'.

Oz
 

Netchaplain

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OzSpen said:
Net Chaplain,

There is no indication in this verse that it refers to those who do not sin in reference to the new nature. That's your interpretation. The fact is that when we look to the Greek text, we don't have to create an argument from silence - which is a logical fallacy.

The KJV of 1 John 3:9 (KJV) is a bad translation: 'Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God'. Even the NRSV has fallen into this trap of not conveying the meaning of the Greek accurately with its translation, 'Those who have been born of God do not sin'.
The "seed" is the new nature, which "cannot sin," because it is "created after the image of Christ (Col 3:10), and is the part of us that "serves the principles of God" (Rom 7:25).

Blessings!
 

Wormwood

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Someone can believe that a person can still have a sin nature without believing in the faulty doctrine of Total Depravity. Total Depravity teaches that human beings are so depraved that they cannot even recognize or accept the truth. The idea that human beings are so depraved that they cannot even understand or accept the Gospel without a special act of grace or illumination from God is simply not taught in the Bible. Again, the entirety of the NT implies that those who hear the Gospel have the capacity to accept it.

Does God veil the minds of some? Does God harden hearts? Yes. But this is done as an act of judgment on those who close their eyes and turn their hearts from the truth when they hear it. So, if someone accepts the doctrine of Total Depravity they have two options. 1. God gives prevenient grace to every human being to allow all people to accept the Gospel when they hear it or 2. God only chooses to quicken some and permit certain individuals to understand and receive the Gospel. The latter teaches that God only has determined to save some in his own sovereignty (the conclusion of Calvinists) and the former basically affirms the doctrine but nullifies its effect.

But why must we affirm the doctrine to begin with if there is no teaching of it in the NT? First, the NT affirms that God desires all to be saved and second it implies that all who hear the Gospel are capable of responding and are held accountable for that decision. There is no teaching of prevenient grace that God bestows on each individual to allow them to accept or reject the Gospel. Rather, the Bible teaches that we are partially depraved. We are born in a sinful world and we are physically and mentally corrupted by its effects. In fact, we will all sin due to the world's influence and our own nature's bent toward wickedness. However, this is not to say that we are so depraved that we cannot even recognize what is good. the Bible simply doesn't teach this. The primary verse that is used to argue this point is Paul's statement that we are "dead" in our sins. Yet, one must not stretch this metaphor beyond its intended purposes. The point Paul is making is that we are dependent upon God's grace for salvation and we are death without that grace. He is NOT teaching that we are "dead" in the sense that we cannot respond to the Gospel. This is a horrible over-reaching that extends the metaphor far beyond the author's intent. Paul is not addressing a person's inability to understand or accept grace with this metaphor.

The evil of the world and human beings is compounded by the revelation of Jesus Christ. Jesus taught that humans see the light but choose to remain in darkness because their deeds are evil. The problem is not that humans cannot discern light from darkness because of their total depravity. Rather, they choose darkness because they prefer it, not because they are incapable of choice. This is why their condemnation for rejecting the Gospel is so great.

In sum, there is no need to accept the doctrine of Total Depravity. To do so forces one toward unbiblical teaching of limited atonement (Jesus died only for those God predetermined to save by removing their depravity and causing them to be reborn...quite separate from their own choice to accept Christ (this choice comes after their election and rejuvenation)) or to basically nullify the doctrine by teaching prevenient grace. Personally, I just don't see any need to jump through either of these hoops since the Bible doesn't teach total depravity to begin with.
 

OzSpen

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NetChaplain said:
The "seed" is the new nature, which "cannot sin," because it is "created after the image of Christ (Col 3:10), and is the part of us that "serves the principles of God" (Rom 7:25).

Blessings!
I provided exegesis for 1 John 3:9. There is not a word in that verse about the 'seed'. Therefore, you comment here is a red herring.
 

FHII

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OzSpen said:
I provided exegesis for 1 John 3:9. There is not a word in that verse about the 'seed'. Therefore, you comment here is a red herring.

Accually there is Oz. The word "seed" is right in the middle of the verse.
 

FHII

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OzSpen said:
I provided exegesis for 1 John 3:9. There is not a word in that verse about the 'seed'. Therefore, you comment here is a red herring.

Accually there is Oz. The word "seed" is right in the middle of the verse.
 

Netchaplain

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OzSpen said:
I provided exegesis for 1 John 3:9. There is not a word in that verse about the 'seed'. Therefore, you comment here is a red herring.
I always appreciate your replies and since we're apart on this issue we can rejoin our communications on other issues.

God bless and God Be Blessed!
 

OzSpen

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FHII said:
Accually there is Oz. The word "seed" is right in the middle of the verse.
You are correct and I was wrong. I apologise for this error on my part.

However, what is the meaning of 'God's seed abides in him' (ESV)? The NLT gives this dynamic equivalence (meaning for meaning) translation from the Greek: 'Those who have been born into God’s family do not make a practice of sinning, because God’s life[a] is in them. So they can’t keep on sinning, because they are children of God'. 'God's seed' is given the meaning of 'God's life' in the NLT.

Conservative Lutheran commentator, R C H Lenski, provides this interpretation of the meaning of 'seed' in 1 John 3:9:

This "seed" is the Word of God (1:10; 2:5 which he guards; 2:14), the light (1:6, 7), the truth (1:8; 2:4); the commandment (2:7, etc.). Here belong 1 Pet. 1:23 and James 1:18. It makes no difference whether we say that the word remains in us, or that we remain in the Word, the truth, etc. "Seed" is figurative, but the figure extends only to the fact that a seed has life in it. The Word of God is a living power (1 Pet. 1:23). It is not necessary to extend this figure, to talk about vegetable seed and human seed, life germ, and to seek for analogies in natural life, seed growth, etc. Jesus and the holy writers dominate their figures and are not dominated by them. Does this interpretation of the "seed" as the Word lose the Holy Spirit? Indeed not! The great means by which the Spirit quickens, kindles life, keeps life alive, is the Word, in which he is, by which he works.
When he has the living Word in his reborn heart no one is able to go on sinning simply "because he has been born from God." The matter is axiomatic. All that can be done by way of explanation is to insert that this Word of God remains in the person and thus to shift the emphasis in the subject: "everyone born of God" does not, cannot go on sinning because of this seed in him, and to emphasize in the predicate that "from God this person is born." Note the position of ek tou theou [from the God]; it occurs first after the participle and then before the verb (Lenski 1966:463, emphasis in original).
This was as good an explanation as I could find in my library and I share it with you for clarification of what 'God's seed' means.

Oz

Works consulted

Lenski, R C H 1966. Commentary on the New Testament: The Interpretation of the Epistles of St. Peter, St. John, and St. Jude. Peabody, Mass: Hendrickson Publishers (this is a limited edition publication in 2001; copyright is with Augsburg Publishing House).