How many Christians disobey this?

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DPMartin

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GINOLJC, to tom55, there are two types of marriages in the Hebrew economy. 1. an espouse marriage, or someone was betrothal. 2. a consummated marriage. if you're in an espouse marriage, and put away your wife, without a bill of divorcement, and marries another, yes you have committed adultery, legally. but if in an espouse marriage, and put away your wife, but gives a bill of divorcement, (with reason). and then marries another, no you're not committing adultery, because the marriage had not yet been consummated, or had sexual releation. the answer is clear in Matthew 5:32 "But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery". here one have both words, fornication, and adultery. the only time one can commit fornication in a marriage if they are espouse in a marriage.
hope this helped



Exo_20:14 Thou shalt not commit adultery.

Lev_20:10 And the man that committeth adultery with another man's wife, even he that committeth adultery with his neighbour's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death.


divorce would be more forgiving don't you think? and its not a sin to be merciful toward the offender.

according to the Lord God according to Moses fornication maybe dealt with divorce but adultery can be righteously dealt with corporal punishment, and in a gentile environment like western culture you would be prosecuted for murder in this case.


Also, as most people, especially Christians, don’t know or even care, God put man in His place in the earth to execute His Judgements. And it is permissible in God’s eyes to remove an adulterer from the world. But Jesus demonstrates when the Pharisees thought to challenge Jesus, Jesus being correct by law and righteous by His sinless nature could have said put her to death, but instead executed His Father’s Judgement which is Life, therefore no condemnation.


In the case of real world today, in a gentile society where adultery is nothing but a thing, and very acceptable and many time rewarded socially and legally. If a offended spouse who by Moses would be a widower or widow, remarries there is no offence to the law. its not against the law for a widow, or widower to remarry. And again no need to put the adulterer to death when one may forgive but can’t live with nor trust at all anymore may divorce and move on as though under the law of Moses would be widow anyway.
 
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101G

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divorce would be more forgiving don't you think? and its not a sin to be merciful toward the offender.
GINOLJC, to DP, first thanks for the response. #1 we're no longer under the Mosaic Law. also some divorce was not an offence by either party. only the man for whatever reason, (the hardness of his heart) gave a divorce. but the same principle apply in 1 Corinthians 7:1-9 for an espouse marriage, and a consummated marriage 1 Corinthians 7:10 & 11. and this marriage is commanded by the Lord.
one might want to read that chapter and get a clear understanding.
according to the Lord God according to Moses fornication maybe dealt with divorce but adultery can be righteously dealt with corporal punishment, and in a gentile environment like western culture you would be prosecuted for murder in this case.
to a point I must disagree. the Law is not spirit in nature, for the Law was a GUIDE. let me give an example. Mary and Joseph. Mary was found with child before the marriage was consummated. now if Joseph invoke the Law Mary could have been stone. Joseph walked in the spirit of the Law and not the Law itself. listen, Micah 6:8 "He hath shewed thee, O man, what is good; and what doth the LORD require of thee, but to do justly, and to love mercy, and to walk humbly with thy God?". see Joseph fulfilled the Law by showing MERCY, listen, Matthew 1:19 "Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily". this is the spirit of the Law to show MERCY. hoped that helped.
In the case of real world today, in a gentile society where adultery is nothing but a thing, and very acceptable and many time rewarded socially and legally. If a offended spouse who by Moses would be a widower or widow, remarries there is no offence to the law. its not against the law for a widow, or widower to remarry. And again no need to put the adulterer to death when one may forgive but can’t live with nor trust at all anymore may divorce and move on as though under the law of Moses would be widow anyway.
One answer, Romans 4:15 "Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression". Romans 5:20 "Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound".
 

DPMartin

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GINOLJC, to DP, first thanks for the response. #1 we're no longer under the Mosaic Law. also some divorce was not an offence by either party. only the man for whatever reason, (the hardness of his heart) gave a divorce. but the same principle apply in 1 Corinthians 7:1-9 for an espouse marriage, and a consummated marriage 1 Corinthians 7:10 & 11. and this marriage is commanded by the Lord.
one might want to read that chapter and get a clear understanding.

to a point I must disagree. the Law is not spirit in nature, for the Law was a GUIDE. let me give an example. Mary and Joseph. Mary was found with child before the marriage was consummated. now if Joseph invoke the Law Mary could have been stone. Joseph walked in the spirit of the Law and not the Law itself. listen, Micah 6:8 "He hath shewed thee, O man, what is good; and what doth the LORD require of thee, but to do justly, and to love mercy, and to walk humbly with thy God?". see Joseph fulfilled the Law by showing MERCY, listen, Matthew 1:19 "Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily". this is the spirit of the Law to show MERCY. hoped that helped.

One answer, Romans 4:15 "Because the law worketh wrath: for where no law is, there is no transgression". Romans 5:20 "Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound".

I really don't think you understand, even though everything Paul says here is true:

Rom 3:26 To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.
Rom 3:27 Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith.
Rom 3:28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.
Rom 3:29 Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:
Rom 3:30 Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith.

but he concludes :

Rom 3:31 Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.

why?
Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith. hence all believers are justified by the same faith as Abraham. hence all that follows Abraham is under the same.

God's Word isn't antiquated like "modern world Christians" want to believe, it is fulfilled. and flesh can fear, and can respect which is what the Lord God expected of His People Israel before Jesus came into the world. God's no fool, He made man therefore He never expected man to fulfill what it takes God to fulfill.

so there's no reason for flesh to not fear God and the things of God and flesh to not respect God and the things of God, let alone there is absolutely no reason for those who are supposed to be born of God to not fear and respect the same.

to think that God's views on what man ought to be in His sight has changed would be very incorrect. Jesus has fulfilled that to the Father's satisfaction because Adam died of the life necessary to fulfill it.



Mal_1:6 A son honoureth his father, and a servant his master: if then I be a father, where is mine honour? and if I be a master, where is my fear? saith the LORD of hosts unto you, O priests, that despise my name. And ye say, Wherein have we despised thy name?
 
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101G

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but he concludes :

Rom 3:31 Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.
GINOLJC, first thanks for the response. now concering the LAW, I'll use scripture, 1 Timothy 1:9 "Knowing this, that the law is not made for a righteous man, but for the lawless and disobedient, for the ungodly and for sinners, for unholy and profane, for murderers of fathers and murderers of mothers, for manslayers, 10 For whoremongers, for them that defile themselves with mankind, for menstealers, for liars, for perjured persons, and if there be any other thing that is contrary to sound doctrine" see DP the law is establish for violators, and the Law is the means to the end of these violators they will meet the Lord in it. scripture, Romans 2:12 "For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law". when the end comes, JUDGMENT DAY. I suggest one be in Christ or else one will face the Law........... (smile).