Judah and his daughter

(poetboy;30863)
I wanted to know why did judah's daughter decide to play a harlot?..
She was Judah's "daughter-in-law", not his blood daughter. God's law was when your husband died his brother would take his place. The problem is all of the sons of Judah were from a Gentile mother. God killed those men, the sons of Judah, as He did not allow them to be in the lineage of Christ....which remained pure, only of the chosen people.So, Tamar had to "play the harlot" in order to have a child of Judah. She did and Christ is from her...........Whirlwind

I'll stick my neck out on this one...... although Judah was not given the "scepter" blessing at this point, I pointed out in the other thread that the family name was important, and Onan died because he would not pass on his brother's name. I still believe that the sons of Israel felt it was very important to pass on their name because of the promise of a great people.Saying this, I am therefore assuming that Tamar, by bearing a son, would simply hope to be included in that family name and received appropriate blessings from that. If she had no son, she would have been an outcast in those days, something that a woman did not like to think about. Although I think its the former reason is the most strong---- she expected to get something from it.

I think both Whirlwind and Tim are correct here Whirlwind is correct from Gods point of veiw but I doubt Tamar understood this so from her human perspective Tim is probably right

The problem is all of the sons of Judah were from a Gentile mother. God killed those men, the sons of Judah, as He did not allow them to be in the lineage of Christ....which remained pure, only of the chosen people.
This confuses me for a number of reasonsfirst, Judah sons were put to death because of wickedness Gen 38The other problem I am having, is you keep talking about a pure blood line, which I don't believe is true or necessary. In Mathew 1 he seems to go out of his way, to list the gentile women in Jesus genealogy mat 1:5And Salmon begat Booz of Rachab; and Booz begat Obed of Ruth; and Obed begat Jesse;Booz mother was Rachab, A prostitute and a gentileRuth was a gentile a moabite and gave birth to ObedKing David had Bethsheba's husband killed so he could have her. She was a Hittite and gave birth to SolomonTo say Judah's sons were killed because they had gentile mothers does not seem to be the case also I believe this is the reason, the genealogy of Jesus did not have to be "pure" There are gentiles in his genealogy

(John;32386)
This confuses me for a number of reasonsfirst, Judah sons were put to death because of wickedness Gen 38The other problem I am having, is you keep talking about a pure blood line, which I don't believe is true or necessary. In Mathew 1 he seems to go out of his way, to list the gentile women in Jesus genealogy mat 1:5And Salmon begat Booz of Rachab; and Booz begat Obed of Ruth; and Obed begat Jesse;Booz mother was Rachab, A prostitute and a gentileRuth was a gentile a moabite and gave birth to ObedKing David had Bethsheba's husband killed so he could have her. She was a Hittite and gave birth to SolomonTo say Judah's sons were killed because they had gentile mothers does not seem to be the case also I believe this is the reason, the genealogy of Jesus did not have to be "pure" There are gentiles in his genealogy
If Yahshua did not come of a pure lineage, then He wouldn't be 100% Israeli / Jew. In fact there is no chance in the Old Testament where Gentiles can repent, but only in the New Testament where Gentiles can repent for their sins in the name of Jesus. As He is not only God of the Jews, also He is God of the Gentiles also. (Romans 3:29)After all He did give light of the Gentiles today. (Isaiah 49:6)JagLovest thou in Christ Yahshua, Lord and Saviour of the world.

If Yahshua did not come of a pure lineage, then He wouldn't be 100% Israeli / Jew
.Yes, I guess your right then, he is not 100% Israeli/Jew, because according to Matthew 1 he had four gentile women in his genealogy. Tamar, Rachab, Bathseba and Ruth.
In fact there is no chance in the Old Testament where Gentiles can repent, but only in the New Testament where Gentiles can repent for their sins in the name of Jesus.
Iam not sure I agree Rom 2:14 (Indeed, when Gentiles, who do not have the law, do by nature things required by the law, they are a law for themselves, even though they do not have the law, Rom 2:15 since they show that the requirements of the law are written on their hearts, their consciences also bearing witness, and their thoughts now accusing, now even defending them.)

(thesuperjag;32418)
If Yahshua did not come of a pure lineage, then He wouldn't be 100% Israeli / Jew. In fact there is no chance in the Old Testament where Gentiles can repent, but only in the New Testament where Gentiles can repent for their sins in the name of Jesus. As He is not only God of the Jews, also He is God of the Gentiles also. (Romans 3:29)After all He did give light of the Gwntiles today. (Isaiah 49:6)JagLovest thou in Christ Yahshua, Lord and Saviour of the world.
If gentiles in the OT could not repent then what happened here?"In this thing the LORD pardon thy servant, that when my master goeth into the house of Rimmon to worship there, and he leaneth on my hand, and I bow myself in the house of Rimmon: when I bow down myself in the house of Rimmon, the LORD pardon thy servant in this thing. And he said unto him, Go in peace. So he departed from him a little way." II Kings 5:18-19