A Study on the Book of James

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Enoch111

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Since the word of God has to be based on truth, I find the book of James is not meant to be used as a book directed to the grace church. It is only truth to those under the Law of Moses, the Jews.
You have arrived at a false conclusion based upon false premises. Time to go back to square one.

James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting...
(James 1:1)

Did you notice that? It does not say "A servant of God and of Moses". For James to call Jesus "the Lord Jesus Christ" means that AS A CHRISTIAN he is writing to Christians (who happen to be Hebrews).

I could provide you with many Scriptures within James to support this, but first you have to deal with this one verse, and tell us how it could possibly have anything to do with the Old Covenant.
 

Ac28

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Where did you come up with this notion? Kindly listen to James:

But he giveth more grace. Wherefore he saith, God resisteth the proud, but giveth grace unto the humble. Submit yourselves therefore to God. Resist the devil, and he will flee from you. (James 4:6,7)
Israel was still under the Old Covenant when James was written - see Heb 8:13. Israel was still totally under the law and the book of James was written only to Israel - see Jam 1:1. Also, James talks about God giving more grace, which means it's not pure grace. When the New Covenant, belonging only to Israel (Jer 31-31), starts, the law will be placed in their inward parts and that will enable the to keep the Law and love it. The NC will be a form of grace, I suppose, but it's still not pure grace like we Gentiles have today.

Paul, the only apostle any of us should really pay any attention to, since he is the only apostle we Gentiles have ever had, treats grace differently. If you're under the law, you're not under pure grace. During Romans, the saved Gentiles weren't under the law, but they were under those 4 ordinaces given in Ac 15. They were not under pure grace. The only people in Bible History, since Gen 12, that have ever been under pure grace are the saved Gentiles today, those who see their hope and calling in the 7 books Paul wrote after Acts. No one in Acts, nor in Paul's 6 Acts epistles, were under pure grace.
Romans 6:14 -
For sin shall not have dominion over you: for ye are not under the law, but under grace.
 
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Ac28

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You have arrived at a false conclusion based upon false premises. Time to go back to square one.

James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting...
(James 1:1)

Did you notice that? It does not say "A servant of God and of Moses". For James to call Jesus "the Lord Jesus Christ" means that AS A CHRISTIAN he is writing to Christians (who happen to be Hebrews).

I could provide you with many Scriptures within James to support this, but first you have to deal with this one verse, and tell us how it could possibly have anything to do with the Old Covenant.

Believing Jews in the Acts Church still had to keep the law. They still have to keep the law during the Millennium and, though it doesn't say. I think they'll still have to keep the law on the New Earth.

Acts 21:20
And when they heard it, they glorified the Lord, and said unto him, Thou seest, brother, how many thousands of Jews there are which believe; and they are all zealous of the law:
 

Ac28

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You have arrived at a false conclusion based upon false premises. Time to go back to square one.

James, a servant of God and of the Lord Jesus Christ, to the twelve tribes which are scattered abroad, greeting...
(James 1:1)

Did you notice that? It does not say "A servant of God and of Moses". For James to call Jesus "the Lord Jesus Christ" means that AS A CHRISTIAN he is writing to Christians (who happen to be Hebrews).

I could provide you with many Scriptures within James to support this, but first you have to deal with this one verse, and tell us how it could possibly have anything to do with the Old Covenant.

Since H.Richard seems to obey 2Tim 2:15 and practice right division, he is one of the few people on this forum that has any idea of what he's talking about. It's impossible to understand the New Testament without rightly dividing God's word. Those that don't rightly divide are automatically placed on a lower level of understanding. As a bonus, according to 2Tim 2:15, those who do rightly divide (correctly cut, correctly dissect) God's word are approved unto God and do not have to feel ashamed. And, for those who don't rightly divide, the opposite must be true.
 

Enoch111

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Believing Jews in the Acts Church still had to keep the law.
There's a huge difference between HAD TO KEEP THE LAW and continued to obey the Law since they were all Jews. As long as the temple was standing in Jerusalem, this would be true. Once the temple was destroyed and the New Covenant teachings of the apostles were absorbed by the Apostolic churches, that would all change. We already see in Romans and Galatians how the Law is shown to be "the schoolmaster" who brought people to Christ.

Over time, believing Jews (which were in all the churches, since Paul had preached the Gospel in all the synagogues of the Roman Empire) had to learn that they were no longer under the Law of Moses. So the book of Acts shows a TRANSITION PERIOD where believing Jews continued to observe the Law of Moses and its injunctions, but also knew that salvation was by grace through faith in Christ and His finished work of redemption.
 

epostle1

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Since H.Richard seems to obey 2Tim 2:15 and practice right division, he is one of the few people on this forum that has any idea of what he's talking about. It's impossible to understand the New Testament without rightly dividing God's word. Those that don't rightly divide are automatically placed on a lower level of understanding. As a bonus, according to 2Tim 2:15, those who do rightly divide (correctly cut, correctly dissect) God's word are approved unto God and do not have to feel ashamed. And, for those who don't rightly divide, the opposite must be true.
2 Timothy 2:15 Do your best to present yourself to God as one approved, a worker who does not need to be ashamed and who correctly handles the word of truth.

"word of truth" does not mean the written word alone.

"Word of God" appears in scripture roughly 180-200 times, depending on the translation. Use any Bible search engine. I haven't found any instance where "word of God" means the written word alone. Maybe you can find one. Don't get me wrong. The written word is the word of God, but the written word is not in isolation from the spoken word.

How do you "rightly divide", without changing the meaning of "word of God"???

"as one approved" doesn't mean any believer with a Bible (the NT as we know it would not exist for the first 350 years) it refers to those with apostolic authority.

"Paul, Silvanus [Silas], and Timothy, To the church of the Thessalonians... we have been approved by God to be entrusted with the gospel." (1 Thess. 1:1, 2:4)
 
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Ac28

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2 Timothy 2:15 Do your best to present yourself to God as one approved, a worker who does not need to be ashamed and who correctly handles the word of truth.

"word of truth" does not mean the written word alone.

"Word of God" appears in scripture roughly 180-200 times, depending on the translation. Use any Bible search engine. I haven't found any instance where "word of God" means the written word alone. Maybe you can find one. Don't get me wrong. The written word is the word of God, but the written word is not in isolation from the spoken word.

How do you "rightly divide", without changing the meaning of "word of God"???

"as one approved" doesn't mean any believer with a Bible (the NT as we know it would not exist for the first 350 years) it refers to those with apostolic authority.

"Paul, Silvanus [Silas], and Timothy, To the church of the Thessalonians... we have been approved by God to be entrusted with the gospel." (1 Thess. 1:1, 2:4)

_________________________________________________
Let me start with the abhorrent translation of 2Tim2:5 you've scrounged up. The phrase "rightly dividing" means, according to Strong's, "to make a straight cut", "correctly cut" or "correctly dissect". All of these involve CUTTING. Only the weak, perverted versions, like the NIV, ESV, or the RV, pervert the meaning and use such weak phrases as "correctly handling". These terrible versions obviously don't like the idea of cutting God's word, so they changed it to suit themselves. Sort of like the Catholic Church.

The only group i know of, today, when we finally possess the completed Word of God, that would say that "the word of truth" does not mean only the written word, would be the Catholic Church, since they go against Christ's Words and use Satanic oral traditions for probably 95% of their doctrine. And of course, everyone knows that you can't believe anything the Catholic Church says. Their entire doctrine is built on fabrication and lies and the only people in Christendom that don't accept this FACT are the Catholics, themselves.

For the last 1950 years, we have had the completed word of God. Therefore, we have no Deity, as in other eras, talking directly to us, no matter what anyone says. We don't need these things, because we have ALL of God's word, everything that God wishes us to know. Paul's after-Acts dispensation competed the word of God. The word "fulfil" means fill full, complete, satisfy, verify, accomplish, fill up, etc. The same Greek word is translated "complete" in both Col 3:10 and 4:12. Col 1:25 means what it says. The Word of God was COMPLETED by Pau's after-Acts dispensation and it's all contained in the Bible that we all have. Anyone that would trust a person (including popes) that told them that God spoke to them is a fool.
Col 1:25
Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God;

You said, "How do you "rightly divide", without changing the meaning of "word of God"???"\
Right
division changes absolutely nothing. It just focuses of those things that directly affects us Gentiles, like out hope and calling and eliminates Israel's hope and calling, which are totally different than ours, from OUR doctrine. During Acts, there was a body of believers that made up the Acts Church. After Acts, the new Church actually becomes part of Christ's Body, where He is the Head. This cannot be the same church as in Acts because some members in Acts are said to be part of the head - ears, eyes, etc. - 1Cor 12:15
Eph:5:30
For we are members of his body, of his flesh, and of his bones.

The Calling of the church during Acts was the New Jerusalem, which isn't Heaven - Gal 4:26 and several verses in Hebrews and Revelation. The Calling after Acts is Heaven. There are many verses that tell us that. In the ASV, ESV, RV, and the NIV, Phil 3:20 says the citizenship of the after-Acts church is in Heaven. The KJV uses conversation but, in the KJV margin, it says citizenship.

So, 2 huge things, Calling and Church, are totally different, when comparing the 59 all-Israel books with Paul's 7 all-Gentile books that he wrote after Acts. There are many other things that are different. For example. (1) Paul was able to heal in Acts 28:8-9, the very end of Acts. In the after-Acts books, there were 3 instances of sick people that Paul was unable to heal. One almost died. There is no mention of tongues or the other gifts after Acts. Therefore, the Gifts had obviously stopped after Acts. (2) In the rapture for the Acts church, the saints meet Christ in the air above the earth. In the "Appearing", which is the "rapture" for the after-Acts church of today, the saints are immediately resurrected INTO Heaven, to Appear with Christ, when HE first Appears IN Heaven - Col 3:4. Note that Glory in that verse is defined as being above the heavens in Ps 8:1

When things are different, they are not the same. That might sound obvious, but nearly all of Christendom has failed to believe it.

Without right division, there will definitely be the confusion of which church we really belong to?, whether we go to heaven or the New Jerusalem?, whether or not we still have the Gifts?, whether the "rapture" or the "appearing" is our resurrection. This confusion is obvious if we examine Christendom today. No mainstream denominational churches that I've ever heard of obey 2Tim 2:15 and rightly divide. They, for some reason (Satan's influence, maybe?) have mainly picked the dead and gone doctrines found in Acts to teach as truth for today. Therefore, I define the denominational churches as Jewish synagogues teaching Jewish doctrine to unsuspecting Gentiles, whom the doctrine they teach does not apply.

God's solution to this confusion, of which He is not the author of, is to tell us to rightly divide His Word in 2Tim 2:15. Also, a verse that goes with this is Phil 1:10, where it tells us to test the things that differ - see Strong's. Both of these verses occur only in Paul's after-Acts, all-Gentile books. The reason is that they were not needed before this, in any of the other 59 all-Israel books, since Israel has always had the same basic Callings and Hopes. Since the main Strong's definition of rightly dividing is "to make A straight cut", I believe it requires only ONE cut and, since the things we want to separate are those present day rules and doctrines from those that pertain only to Israel, we must find a place where it is all-Israel on one side of the cut and all-Gentile on the other side of the cut. In all of scripture after Gen 12, the only place this phenomenon occurs is at the very end of Acts.

All of this sounds complex but, in practice, it is extremely simple. All of the things that tell us what things are NOW available TO US and what WE have to look forward to after death, we can ONLY FIND IN Paul's after-Acts books, because these same things in the other 59 books belong to Israel and they are ALWAYS different than OUR things.

Those other 59 books aren't discarded. God forbid!. According to 2Tim 3:16. "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:" I spend as much time in those other 59 books as anyone. However, when it comes to future happenings or today's rules concerning those happenings, that will DIRECTLY effect me and my family, I know the only place I can possibly find that information is in Paul's after-Acts books. That's right division in a nutshell.

Right Division removes contradictions and confusion. Right Division eliminates the pick-and-choose method of doctrine. If right division were universally taught, as it should be, the Denominational Church system, as we know it, would likely fade away. Its ONLY purpose today, Theologically, without the benefits of right division, is to to help its sheep pick-and-choose whatever the preacher happens to like. If all knew right division, most anyone could easily find Bible truth on their own. Understanding this makes us understand why God approves of those who rightly divide. Besides Paul's salvation scripture of 1Cor 15:1-4 and Eph 2:8-9, the most important passage in the Bible for enhancing our knowledge is 2Tim 2:15.

In 2Tim 2:15, if you rightly divide, you are approved unto God, no matter who you are, period. The keyword is RIGHTLY. Apostolic authority sounds like one of those non-Biblical Catholic things. In any case, it certainly doesn't apply to 2Tim 2:15.
 
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BreadOfLife

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The only group i know of, today, when we finally possess the completed Word of God, that would say that "the word of truth" does not mean only the written word, would be the Catholic Church, since they go against Christ's Words and use Satanic oral traditions for probably 95% of their doctrine. And of course, everyone knows that you can't believe anything the Catholic Church says. Their entire doctrine is built on fabrication and lies and the only people in Christendom that don't accept this FACT are the Catholics, themselves.
Hmmm . . . you made the SAME asinine claim on another thread - and I challenged you to provide proof for it.
Unfortunately, you ran from the thread and never looked back - so I am challenging you again:

Please provide documented evidence for the claim that 95% of Catholic doctrines go "against" the words of Christ and that we use "Satanic oral traditions".

That should be easy for you.
I eagerly await your well-researched response . . .
 

Ac28

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Hmmm . . . you made the SAME asinine claim on another thread - and I challenged you to provide proof for it.
Unfortunately, you ran from the thread and never looked back - so I am challenging you again:

Please provide documented evidence for the claim that 95% of Catholic doctrines go "against" the words of Christ and that we use "Satanic oral traditions".

That should be easy for you.
I eagerly await your well-researched response . . .

I don't recall talking to you. As with every catholic apologist, you're a bully and you protest the most insignificant things in order to keep away from the important things, like the Catholic church being built most entirely on lies, pagan ritual, pagan doctrine, and oral tradition, from being discussed. Those are the last words I'll say to you. That pitiful fake insignificant church isn't worth the time and effort to even acknowledge that it exists.
 

BreadOfLife

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I don't recall talking to you. As with every catholic apologist, you're a bully and you protest the most insignificant things in order to keep away from the important things, like the Catholic church being built most entirely on lies, pagan ritual, pagan doctrine, and oral tradition, from being discussed. Those are the last words I'll say to you. That pitiful fake insignificant church isn't worth the time and effort to even acknowledge that it exists.
Soooo, in other words - you don't have a CLUE about the doctrines, ;beliefs OR origins of Catholic teaching.
That's pretty much what I thought.

Anyway - I will challenge you at EVERY turn when you make these asinine accusations so as to expose your lies in front of everybody.
 

H. Richard

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Soooo, in other words - you don't have a CLUE about the doctrines, ;beliefs OR origins of Catholic teaching.
That's pretty much what I thought.

Anyway - I will challenge you at EVERY turn when you make these asinine accusations so as to expose your lies in front of everybody.
***

I think you are doing a great job of exposing who you are and the fact that you know nothing of what the scriptures really say.
 

BreadOfLife

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***

I think you are doing a great job of exposing who you are and the fact that you know nothing of what the scriptures really say.
And that's great - but unless YOU can answer the question for Ac28 - this is an impotent response.

WHAT is so wrong about demanding an explanation for a charge of "Satanic traditions" and going "against" the words of Christ? If an anti-Catholic is going to MAKE these claims - then they should have the courage to back them up - don't'cha think?

I never make false claims about Protestantism because I don't want to get caught lying . . .
 

epostle1

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_________________________________________________
Let me start with the abhorrent translation of 2Tim2:5 you've scrounged up. The phrase "rightly dividing" means, according to Strong's, "to make a straight cut", "correctly cut" or "correctly dissect". All of these involve CUTTING. Only the weak, perverted versions, like the NIV, ESV, or the RV, pervert the meaning and use such weak phrases as "correctly handling". These terrible versions obviously don't like the idea of cutting God's word, so they changed it to suit themselves. Sort of like the Catholic Church.

The only group i know of, today, when we finally possess the completed Word of God, that would say that "the word of truth" does not mean only the written word, would be the Catholic Church, since they go against Christ's Words and use Satanic oral traditions for probably 95% of their doctrine. And of course, everyone knows that you can't believe anything the Catholic Church says. Their entire doctrine is built on fabrication and lies and the only people in Christendom that don't accept this FACT are the Catholics, themselves.

For the last 1950 years, we have had the completed word of God. Therefore, we have no Deity, as in other eras, talking directly to us, no matter what anyone says. We don't need these things, because we have ALL of God's word, everything that God wishes us to know. Paul's after-Acts dispensation competed the word of God. The word "fulfil" means fill full, complete, satisfy, verify, accomplish, fill up, etc. The same Greek word is translated "complete" in both Col 3:10 and 4:12. Col 1:25 means what it says. The Word of God was COMPLETED by Pau's after-Acts dispensation and it's all contained in the Bible that we all have. Anyone that would trust a person (including popes) that told them that God spoke to them is a fool.
Col 1:25
Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God;

You said, "How do you "rightly divide", without changing the meaning of "word of God"???"\
Right
division changes absolutely nothing. It just focuses of those things that directly affects us Gentiles, like out hope and calling and eliminates Israel's hope and calling, which are totally different than ours, from OUR doctrine. During Acts, there was a body of believers that made up the Acts Church. After Acts, the new Church actually becomes part of Christ's Body, where He is the Head. This cannot be the same church as in Acts because some members in Acts are said to be part of the head - ears, eyes, etc. - 1Cor 12:15
Eph:5:30
For we are members of his body, of his flesh, and of his bones.

The Calling of the church during Acts was the New Jerusalem, which isn't Heaven - Gal 4:26 and several verses in Hebrews and Revelation. The Calling after Acts is Heaven. There are many verses that tell us that. In the ASV, ESV, RV, and the NIV, Phil 3:20 says the citizenship of the after-Acts church is in Heaven. The KJV uses conversation but, in the KJV margin, it says citizenship.

So, 2 huge things, Calling and Church, are totally different, when comparing the 59 all-Israel books with Paul's 7 all-Gentile books that he wrote after Acts. There are many other things that are different. For example. (1) Paul was able to heal in Acts 28:8-9, the very end of Acts. In the after-Acts books, there were 3 instances of sick people that Paul was unable to heal. One almost died. There is no mention of tongues or the other gifts after Acts. Therefore, the Gifts had obviously stopped after Acts. (2) In the rapture for the Acts church, the saints meet Christ in the air above the earth. In the "Appearing", which is the "rapture" for the after-Acts church of today, the saints are immediately resurrected INTO Heaven, to Appear with Christ, when HE first Appears IN Heaven - Col 3:4. Note that Glory in that verse is defined as being above the heavens in Ps 8:1

When things are different, they are not the same. That might sound obvious, but nearly all of Christendom has failed to believe it.

Without right division, there will definitely be the confusion of which church we really belong to?, whether we go to heaven or the New Jerusalem?, whether or not we still have the Gifts?, whether the "rapture" or the "appearing" is our resurrection. This confusion is obvious if we examine Christendom today. No mainstream denominational churches that I've ever heard of obey 2Tim 2:15 and rightly divide. They, for some reason (Satan's influence, maybe?) have mainly picked the dead and gone doctrines found in Acts to teach as truth for today. Therefore, I define the denominational churches as Jewish synagogues teaching Jewish doctrine to unsuspecting Gentiles, whom the doctrine they teach does not apply.

God's solution to this confusion, of which He is not the author of, is to tell us to rightly divide His Word in 2Tim 2:15. Also, a verse that goes with this is Phil 1:10, where it tells us to test the things that differ - see Strong's. Both of these verses occur only in Paul's after-Acts, all-Gentile books. The reason is that they were not needed before this, in any of the other 59 all-Israel books, since Israel has always had the same basic Callings and Hopes. Since the main Strong's definition of rightly dividing is "to make A straight cut", I believe it requires only ONE cut and, since the things we want to separate are those present day rules and doctrines from those that pertain only to Israel, we must find a place where it is all-Israel on one side of the cut and all-Gentile on the other side of the cut. In all of scripture after Gen 12, the only place this phenomenon occurs is at the very end of Acts.

All of this sounds complex but, in practice, it is extremely simple. All of the things that tell us what things are NOW available TO US and what WE have to look forward to after death, we can ONLY FIND IN Paul's after-Acts books, because these same things in the other 59 books belong to Israel and they are ALWAYS different than OUR things.

Those other 59 books aren't discarded. God forbid!. According to 2Tim 3:16. "All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:" I spend as much time in those other 59 books as anyone. However, when it comes to future happenings or today's rules concerning those happenings, that will DIRECTLY effect me and my family, I know the only place I can possibly find that information is in Paul's after-Acts books. That's right division in a nutshell.

Right Division removes contradictions and confusion. Right Division eliminates the pick-and-choose method of doctrine. If right division were universally taught, as it should be, the Denominational Church system, as we know it, would likely fade away. Its ONLY purpose today, Theologically, without the benefits of right division, is to to help its sheep pick-and-choose whatever the preacher happens to like. If all knew right division, most anyone could easily find Bible truth on their own. Understanding this makes us understand why God approves of those who rightly divide. Besides Paul's salvation scripture of 1Cor 15:1-4 and Eph 2:8-9, the most important passage in the Bible for enhancing our knowledge is 2Tim 2:15.

In 2Tim 2:15, if you rightly divide, you are approved unto God, no matter who you are, period. The keyword is RIGHTLY. Apostolic authority sounds like one of those non-Biblical Catholic things. In any case, it certainly doesn't apply to 2Tim 2:15.
I get it. You are anti-Protestant, anti-Catholic, Christian Taliban.
 
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epostle1

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And that's great - but unless YOU can answer the question for Ac28 - this is an impotent response.

WHAT is so wrong about demanding an explanation for a charge of "Satanic traditions" and going "against" the words of Christ? If an anti-Catholic is going to MAKE these claims - then they should have the courage to back them up - don't'cha think?

I never make false claims about Protestantism because I don't want to get caught lying . . .
Ac28 most likely uses the same resources as Philistine Man, and neither will tell us where their resources are from. I would guess it's Jackkk Chickkk, or Alberto Rivera, or Dave Hunt or a legion of other bigots. It's this kind of hate speech that results in threads being locked. It's Christianity Board, not Let's-Bash-Catholics-With-Hate-and-Lies Board.
It's not "Catholics v.s. Protestants", it's Catholics defending ourselves against sadistic, ignorant anti-Catholics. We shouldn't be blamed for defending ourselves and when we do, it's a denomination rule violation.
I favor deleting offense posts, not locking threads which amounts to censorship.
 
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epostle1

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hey axe,

sorry_if.jpg
 

Born_Again

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Man, you take a year break and come back to see y'all are still at it. Lol