Is Jesus son of God?

(Thunder1;42317)
Truth is there in the Bible, not worth even debating.
You do not face the truth brother.

Show me in you bible where jesus himself says "I am God" or where he says "worship me". If that is not in the bible, then sorry, your belief is invalid because who is God and who is not is a very basic thing for a religion. If jesus would have been God, he would have said it clearly which he didn't because he was one of the mightiest messengers of God who did lot of unique miracles.

(zadzial;42321)
Hi Mazhar, It is good that you have asked about why Christians believe Jesus is the Son of God and I am always happy to talk about what I believe and why. I would therefore like you to consider the following points.
What about the verses I mentioned?

Dear brothers and sisters,We muslims beleive that The Injeel (The Gospel) that was revealed to Jesus buh is not the Bible today but Bible is its corrupted form. We beleive that you only have a portion of The Gospel remaining and the other portion is not the God's word.Do you agree with us or not?

(Remagoen;42332)
I mean, do you think that the Qur'an is perfect? Please don't avoid the question like this, I never referred to the Dr.
Quran is a word of Allah and it is perfect. Allah says in Quran :Do they not consider the Qur'an (with care)? Had it been from other than Allah, they would surely have found therein much discrepancy. [Qur'an 4:82]Allah challenges non-beleivers that there is no contradiction in Quran unless they find it out of context.Allah further challenges:And if you are in doubt as to that which We have revealed to Our servant, then produce a chapter like it (min mithlihi) and call on your witnesses besides Allah if you are truthful. But if you do (it) not and never shall you do (it), then be on your guard against the fire of which men and stones are the fuel; it is prepared for the unbelievers. [2:23-24]Or do they say: He has forged it? Say: Then bring a chapter like this (mithlihi) and invite whom you can besides Allah, if you are truthful. [10:38]Or, do they say: He has forged it. Say: Then bring ten forged chapters like it (mithlihi) and call upon whom you can besides Allah, if you are truthful. [11:13]Say: If men and jinn should combine together to bring the like of this Quran (bimithlihi hatha al-Qurani), they could not bring the like of it, though some of them were aiders of others. [17:88]Or do they say: He has forged it. Nay! they do not believe. Then let them bring an announcement like it (mithlihi) if they are truthful. [52:33-34]

Let me ask you some questions:According to most Christians, Jesus was God-incarnate, full man and full God. Can the finite and the infinite be one? "To be full" God means freedom from finite forms and from helplessness, and to be "full man" means the absence of divinity. 1. To be son is to be less than divine and to be divine is to be no one’s son. How could Jesus have the attributes of sonship and divinity altogether? 2. Christians assert that Jesus claimed to be God when they quote him in John 14:9: "He that has seen me has seen the Father". Didn’t Jesus clearly say that people have never seen God, as it says in John 5:37: "And the father himself which Has sent me, has borne witness of me. You have NEITHER HEARD HIS VOICE AT ANY TIME NOR SEEN HIS SHAPE"? 3. Christians say that Jesus was God because he was called Son of God, Son of Man, Messiah, and "savior". Ezekiel was addressed in the Bible as Son of Man. Jesus spoke of "the peace makers" as Sons of God. Any person who followed the Will and Plan of God was called SON OF GOD in the Jewish tradition and in their language (Genesis 6:2,4; Exodus 4:22; Psalm 2:7; Romans 8:14). "Messiah" which in Hebrew means "God’s anointed" and not "Christ", and "Cyrus" the person is called "Messiah" or "the anointed". As for "savior", in II KINGS 13:5, other individuals were given that title too without being gods. So where is the proof in these terms that Jesus was God when the word son is not exclusively used for him alone? 4. Christians claim that Jesus acknowledged that he and God were one in the sense of nature when he says in John 10:30 "I and my father are one". Later on in John 17:21-23, Jesus refers to his followers and himself and God as one in five places. So why did they give the previous "one" a different meaning from the other five "ones? 5. Is God three-in-one and one in three simultaneously or one at a time?

(Elisha Kai;42401)
I asked Mazhar whether he was reluctant to believe in Jesus' divinity because Jesus never said I am God worship me.To this Mazhar replied:Elisha Kai replies:So if you do not believe that Jesus is God simply because he never said he is God, why do you then as a Muslim believe that Jesus is a prophet or the Messiah--Jesus never said I am a prophet or Messiah. According to your own approach Jesus is not God, but neither is he a prophet or Messiah. Could you please elaborate on this.
I showed you in this thread the mission of jesus, there I told you that jesus is prophet of God. Even if bible does nt say anything quran says that jesus is prophet ans musis beleive that jesus is prophet of God and he was raised above by God and he wil come again.

(zadzial;42522)
Again you have made your often definitions about what it mean for Jesus to be the Son of God. Please refer to my earlier post.
I read it but it didn't answer my questions. Even for the sake of argument I agree with you on that points (which I do not) then how about other verses? And how about the questions I asked. You didn;t give sufficient answers. You only quoting other verses from bible rather than giving answers to what I quote becuase if you give any other verse in response to other verse in Bible it means bible has contradictions.

Here are other questions:1.If God is one and three simultaneously, then none of the three could be the complete God. Granting that such was the case, then when Jesus was on earth, he wasn’t a complete God, nor was the "father in Heaven" a whole God. Doesn’t that contradict what Jesus always said about His God and our God in heaven, his Lord and our Lord ? Does that also mean that there was no complete god then, between the claimed crucifixion and the claimed resurrection? 2.If God is one and three at a time, then who was the God in heaven when Jesus was on earth? Wouldn’t this contradict his many references to a God in Heaven that sent him? 3.If God is three and one at the same time, who was the God in Heaven within three days between the claimed crucifixion and the claimed resurrect ion? 4.Christians say that: "The Father(F) is God, the Son(S) is God, and the Holy Ghost(H) is God, but the Father is not the Son, the Son is not the Holy Ghost, and the Holy Ghost is not the Father". In simple arithmetic and terms therefore, if F = G, S = G, and H = G, then it follows that F = S = H, while the second part of the statement suggests that F ¹ S ¹ H (meaning, "not equal"). Isn’t that a contradiction to the Christian dogma of Trinity in itself ? 5.If Jesus was God, why did he tell the man who called him "good master" not to call him "good" because accordingly, there is none good but his God in Heaven alone? 6.Why do Christians say that God is three-in-one and one in three when Jesus says in Mark 12:29: "The Lord our God is one Lord" in as many places as yet in the Bible?

(zadzial;42565)
I believe that my response answered your question. I showed why Christians believe Jesus to be the Son of God backed up with direct and indirect references in the Bible. Nothing in the Bible is contradictory, but there are some things that are hard to comprehend. This is human reasoning. As I said, the Trinity doctrine is not an easy one to comprehend and I am not sure human are capable of comprehending it. However others, as well as myself, have tried to explain it in this thread (see DrBubbaLove's post and Jon-Marc's post). See above.See above.How can you reason God's nature using arithmetic as an analogy. Again, this is human reasoning.If you look carefully at the verse, you will see that Jesus is in fact NOT denying his own goodness. Instead he is forcing the man to recognize that his only hope was in total reliance on God, who alone can give eternal life. He may also have been encouraging the young man to consider the full identity and nature of Jesus.See above, as well as my earlier post, as well as the earlier post of others (jon-marc and DrBubbaLove) regarding the Trinity.
So you thnk that "See above" answers my quesions. No way! And why I do not use the logic? It is my right to use it as God ceated science and why will god make such a concept which is against his nature. So if science prove that the concept of god is illogical then that concept is wrong.My questions remain same, you didn't answer them.

(Elisha Kai;42569)
Mazhar wrote:Elisha Kai replies:The teaching of the Qur'an about Jesus is not of any value what so ever. The Qur'an came 600 years after Jesus and has nothing of historical significance. Furthermore, the Qur'an requires you as a muslim to believe and follow the Gospel as it appeared and was read by the Christians in Muhammad's lifetime; that is basically the Gospels we possess today; if you are to remain a Muslim Mazhar you better be a good muslim and obey your Qur'an at this point. My challenge to you was according to your own approach to expound upon the basis of your own conclusion, that is, if Jesus is not God because he never said he is God, how can he be a prophet or Messiah since he never made such a literal statement. As I already said, the Qur'an is of no significance here since it appears 600 years later and is of not historical value. Furthermore, the Qur'an according to its own doctrine needs to teach what the previous revelations teaches, which the Qur'an fails to do and so contradicts itself, and therefore proves itself not to be the word of God. Such a book cannot therefore be utilized as an historical source for Jesus Christ. Furthermore, there are clear notions in the Qur'an itself that verify the divinity of Jesus. Also lets play the same game here:Can you Mazhar show us any verse in the Qur'an where Muhammad says: I am a prophet of God listen to me. Remember it cannot be the statement made by anyone else but Muhammad himself, and using the hadiths will not work, since according to your own approach to the Gospels they are the work of man, hence the hadiths are the work of man, by using your own approach. So I would like you to show us one verse in the Qur'an where Muhammad himself says: I am God's prophet listen to me.
Quran itself says that the Gospel is corrupted:Have you not seen how those who have received a portion of the Scripture invoke the Scripture of Allah (in their disputes) that it may judge between them; then a faction of them turn away, being opposed (to it)?(2:23)He has revealed to you (Muhammad) the Scripture with truth, confirming that which was (revealed) before it, even as He revealed the Torah and the Gospel.(2:3)Bible is corrupted and this has been proven by many people, there are many proofs that bible is corrupted. Moses pbuh himself anticipated that bible will be corrupted. Here are some of the proofs:"How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a LIE. (From the RSV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"So while Jeremiah 8:8 is not a Divine Noble Verse from GOD Almighty, but it nonetheless bears witness that false revelations had been inserted into the bibles, with all of the latters' different and variant false books and gospels.It is very clear from the text that the scribes have corrupted the Law (first 5 books of the Old Testament). How did they corrupt it? With their mouths by giving false interpretations? No! They did so with their "pens". Meaning they altered the text of the Law. How else could a pen corrupt something? "`How can you say, "We [the Jews] are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely?' (From the NIV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"The Revised Standard Version makes it even clearer: "How can you say, 'We are wise, and the law of the LORD is with us'? But, behold, the false pen of the scribes has made it into a lie. (From the RSV Bible, Jeremiah 8:8)"In either translation, we clearly see that the Jews had so much corrupted the Bible with their man-made cultural laws, that they had turned the Bible into a lie!See Also Deuteronomy 31:25-29 where Moses peace be upon him predicted the corruption/tampering of the Law (Bible) after his death.The Book of Moses predicted that the Law (Bible) will get corrupted. The Book of Jeremiah which came approximately 826 years after did indeed confirm this corruption.First of all brother quran is a word of God and it does not have saying from any other people so Muhammad’s saying cannot be in quran. Allah says in quran “Obey Allah and obey prophet”. You say Jesus is God, so in this reference I asked you that where did Jesus (or God) says I bible that I am God or worship me. But we say Allah is God and Allah himself says in various places in quran that we have sent Muhammad for whole of human kind as a blessing to be followed and we revealed quran to him.Besides this you said Hadith is written by man, yes it did but many and many precautions were taken to record a hadith and there are many books of hadith and the hadith in which Muhammad pbuh says that I am the final messenger of god is common in every book. So a hadith which is common in every book is for sure authentic. So Allah says that obey Muhammad and Muhammad says that I am final messenger. Even Allah says that Muhammad is not father of any of you but he is the final messenger.I hope this answers!