Infant Baptism, Is It Scriptural?

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BreadOfLife

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If they went under the water they were genuine.
Salvation isn't in Baptism
1 Pet. 3:21
Corresponding to that, baptism now saves you-- not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience-- through the resurrection of Jesus Christ


John 3:5
Jesus answered, "Very truly I tell you, no one can enter the kingdom of God unless they are born of WATER and the Spirit.

Mark 16:16
Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned.
 

Truth7t7

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1 Pet. 3:21
Corresponding to that, baptism now saves you-- not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience-- through the resurrection of Jesus Christ

John 3:5
Jesus answered, "Very truly I tell you, no one can enter the kingdom of God unless they are born of WATER and the Spirit.

Mark 16:16
Whoever believes and is baptized will be saved, but whoever does not believe will be condemned.
Salvation is through faith and faith alone!

If a person had a holy bible, read and repented, received Jesus Christ as savior he's saved!

The thief on the cross was saved, today you will be with me in paradise.

It's the false teaching of Roman Catholicism that have feeble souls bound to "Baptism" "Transubstantiation" etc

Only the Catholic church has the true magic for complete salvation?

100% Bondage!

Faith And Faith Alone!
 
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Josiah

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Whether God may use Baptism for His purposes or not has nothing to do with whether Jesus prohibits baptism to be given to any under that age of _____ (whatever age that is). The issue is where this dogmatic prohibition is stated.
 

BreadOfLife

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Salvation is through faith and faith alone!

Please chow me where the BIBLE teaches this.
Chapter and Verse, please . . .
MY Bible says that belief without obedience is worthless.
If a person had a holy bible, read and repented, received Jesus Christ as savior he's saved!
What about all of the people who DIDN'T have a Holy Bible for the first 1500 or so years of Christianity?
What about the fact that about 85% of the public was functionally ILLITERATE until the dawn of the 20th century??

Christ's CHURCH is where they learned about Christ.
The thief on the cross was saved, today you will be with me in paradise.
It's the false teaching of Roman Catholicism that have feeble souls bound to "Baptism" "Transubstantiation" etc

Only the Catholic church has the true magic for complete salvation?
100% Bondage!
First of all - the Thief on the cross was saved in SPITE of the fact that he couldn't do anything about his faith. He was kind of "busy" at the time. He is an exception - NOT the norm. God understands this and allows for exceptions like the Thief on the cross.

For example - YOU say we are saved by faith "alone" What about babies?? They don't have the capacity to have faith in Christ. Are they going to Hell - or are they exceptions to the rule??

A little advice: NEVER base your doctrines on the exceptions . . .
Faith And Faith Alone!
Again - Chapter and Verse, please . . .
 

BreadOfLife

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Whether God may use Baptism for His purposes or not has nothing to do with whether Jesus prohibits baptism to be given to any under that age of _____ (whatever age that is). The issue is where this dogmatic prohibition is stated.
What "dogmatic prohibition"??
WHO
is "prohibiting" people from being baptized??
 

Truth7t7

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Either you baptize babies as the Apostles did or you make up your OWN rules . . .
"The Baptism Of Repentance"!

"Confessing Their Sins"!


Mark 1:4-5KJV
4 John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.
5 And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem, and were all baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins.
 

BreadOfLife

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"The Baptism Of Repentance"!

"Confessing Their Sins"!


Mark 1:4-5KJV
4 John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.
5 And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem, and were all baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins.
Acts 2:39
The promise is for you
and your children and for all who are far off—for all whom the Lord our God will call.”

1 Cor. 1:16

Yes, I also baptized the HOUSEHOLD of Stephanas;

Acts 16:29-33
The jailer called for lights, rushed in and fell trembling before Paul and Silas. He then brought them out and asked, “Sirs, what must I do to be saved?”
They replied, “Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved—
you and your HOUSEHOLD.” Then they spoke the word of the Lord to him and to all the others in his house. At that hour of the night the jailer took them and washed their wounds; then immediately he and all his HOUSEHOLD were baptized.


Origen
"The Church received from the apostles the tradition of giving baptism even to INFANTS. The apostles, to whom were committed the secrets of the divine sacraments, knew there are in everyone innate strains of [original] sin, which must be washed away through water and the Spirit" (Commentaries on Romans 5:9 [A.D. 248]).

Hippolytus
"Baptize first the children, and if they can speak for themselves let them do so. Otherwise, let their parents or other relatives speak for them" (The Apostolic Tradition 21:16 [A.D. 215]).

Irenaeus
"He [Jesus] came to save all through himself; all, I say, who through him are reborn in God: INFANTS, and children, and youths, and old men. Therefore he passed through every age, becoming an infant for INFANTS, sanctifying INFANTS; a child for children, sanctifying those who are of that age . . . [so that] he might be the perfect teacher in all things, perfect not only in respect to the setting forth of truth, perfect also in respect to relative age" (Against Heresies 2:22:4 [A.D. 189]).

Gregory of Nazianz
"Do you have an INFANT child? Allow sin no opportunity; rather, let the INFANT be sanctified from childhood. From his most tender age let him be consecrated by the Spirit. Do you fear the seal [of baptism] because of the weakness of nature? Oh, what a pusillanimous mother and of how little faith!" (Oration on Holy Baptism 40:7 [A.D. 388]).

John Chrysostom
"You see how many are the benefits of baptism, and some think its heavenly grace consists only in the remission of sins, but we have enumerated ten honors [it bestows]! For this reason we baptize even INFANTS, though they are not defiled by [personal] sins, so that there may be given to them holiness, righteousness, adoption, inheritance, brotherhood with Christ, and that they may be his [Christ’s] members" (Baptismal Catecheses in Augustine, Against Julian 1:6:21 [A.D. 388]).

Augustine
"What the universal Church holds, not as instituted [invented] by councils but as something always held, is most correctly believed to have been handed down by apostolic authority. Since others respond for children, so that the celebration of the sacrament may be complete for them, it is certainly availing to them for their consecration, because they themselves are not able to respond" (On Baptism, Against the Donatists 4:24:31 [A.D. 400]).




 

Truth7t7

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Acts 2:39
The promise is for you
and your children and for all who are far off—for all whom the Lord our God will call.”

1 Cor. 1:16

Yes, I also baptized the HOUSEHOLD of Stephanas;

Acts 16:29-33
The jailer called for lights, rushed in and fell trembling before Paul and Silas. He then brought them out and asked, “Sirs, what must I do to be saved?”
They replied, “Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved—
you and your HOUSEHOLD.” Then they spoke the word of the Lord to him and to all the others in his house. At that hour of the night the jailer took them and washed their wounds; then immediately he and all his HOUSEHOLD were baptized.


Origen
"The Church received from the apostles the tradition of giving baptism even to INFANTS. The apostles, to whom were committed the secrets of the divine sacraments, knew there are in everyone innate strains of [original] sin, which must be washed away through water and the Spirit" (Commentaries on Romans 5:9 [A.D. 248]).

Hippolytus
"Baptize first the children, and if they can speak for themselves let them do so. Otherwise, let their parents or other relatives speak for them" (The Apostolic Tradition 21:16 [A.D. 215]).

Irenaeus
"He [Jesus] came to save all through himself; all, I say, who through him are reborn in God: INFANTS, and children, and youths, and old men. Therefore he passed through every age, becoming an infant for INFANTS, sanctifying INFANTS; a child for children, sanctifying those who are of that age . . . [so that] he might be the perfect teacher in all things, perfect not only in respect to the setting forth of truth, perfect also in respect to relative age" (Against Heresies 2:22:4 [A.D. 189]).

Gregory of Nazianz
"Do you have an INFANT child? Allow sin no opportunity; rather, let the INFANT be sanctified from childhood. From his most tender age let him be consecrated by the Spirit. Do you fear the seal [of baptism] because of the weakness of nature? Oh, what a pusillanimous mother and of how little faith!" (Oration on Holy Baptism 40:7 [A.D. 388]).

John Chrysostom
"You see how many are the benefits of baptism, and some think its heavenly grace consists only in the remission of sins, but we have enumerated ten honors [it bestows]! For this reason we baptize even INFANTS, though they are not defiled by [personal] sins, so that there may be given to them holiness, righteousness, adoption, inheritance, brotherhood with Christ, and that they may be his [Christ’s] members" (Baptismal Catecheses in Augustine, Against Julian 1:6:21 [A.D. 388]).

Augustine
"What the universal Church holds, not as instituted [invented] by councils but as something always held, is most correctly believed to have been handed down by apostolic authority. Since others respond for children, so that the celebration of the sacrament may be complete for them, it is certainly availing to them for their consecration, because they themselves are not able to respond" (On Baptism, Against the Donatists 4:24:31 [A.D. 400]).

"The Baptism Of Repentance"!

"Confessing Their Sins"!


Mark 1:4-5KJV
4 John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.
5 And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem, and were all baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins.
 

BreadOfLife

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"The Baptism Of Repentance"!

"Confessing Their Sins"!


Mark 1:4-5KJV
4 John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.
5 And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem, and were all baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins.
Soooooo, instead of addressing my response - you simply repeat your previous post??
SURELY, you can do better than that . . .
 

Josiah

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Mark 1:4-5KJV
4 John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.
5 And there went out unto him all the land of Judaea, and they of Jerusalem, and were all baptized of him in the river of Jordan, confessing their sins.


1. It's generally accepted that this is one of the several forms of JEWISH baptism. John was doing this JEWISH rite before Jesus even began His ministry and years before Jesus established CHRISTIAN baptism with the Great Commission.

2. I don't agree that for the CHRISTIAN baptism, personal repentance is a prerequiste. Yes, we find a reference to repentance being associated or linked to baptism (with the koine Greek work "kai" - the loosest, most generic, most non-specific connecting work in the Greek language) but it doesn't say "then". There are 3 koine Greek words that mean "then" (at least implying sequence or order - to varying degrees among the 3 words) but none of them appear in any text where the word "baptism" also appears. So the Bible ONLY says that baptism and repentance are associated - not that one is a prerequiete of the other. But yes, for the JEWISH "baptism of repentance" it certainly was.

3. The issue is what the BIBLE says. It says to do it, and it does NOT say "BUT thou art forbidden to give this to any under the age of _____." The prohibition just isn't there in the Bible, the "anti-PAEDObaptism" point is entirely missing in the Bible. True, it doesn 't say "and this includes babies" but then it doesn't say "and this includes women" "this includes blond/blue eyed people" "this includes gentiles" either - but the early Christians understood they were not excluded - just as they understood that infants and children were not. It wasn't until a couple of German Anabaptists in the 16th Century did ANY see this prohibition for those under the age of ____.


Thank you for the conversation.


- Josiah




.
 

Ernest T. Bass

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Respectfully, I disagree. I can find no verse that states, "all those who receive baptism must FIRST come to faith in Jesus THEN the prohibition is lifted." I not only can't find that mandate/requirement/prerequisite anywhere in Scripture, I can't find that clearly applied (again, the several "and their household" examples, Polycarp being baptized as an infant in 69 AD, etc.... indeed, no one "saw" this requirement in Scripture or anywhere until a German Anabaptist in the 16th Century.

You posted "I can find no verse that states, "all those who receive baptism must FIRST come to faith in Jesus..."

Mark 16:16 puts believing before baptism. What Polycarp did does not matter at all, all that matters is what the Bible says for the repository of God's truth is His word, not Polycarp.

Josiah said:
Not the issue before us, but I disagree. See Matthew 18:6, Mark 10:13-15, Luke 1:41, etc.

IMO, faith requires that God gives it. 1 Corinthians 2:14, Ephesians 2:1, Ephesians 2:8, 1 Corinthians 12:3, Romans 6:23 But again, we're off topic.

Yes it is the issue for one who does not, cannot believe are not candidates for baptism.

Infants cannot believe nor so they have any sins to repent of or have remitted in baptism. Original sin and infant baptism are two errors that came from the so called "Church Fathers" and not from the word of God.

The idea that a person can only have faith if God gives it to him contradicts Romans 10:14-17 where faith comes by hearing the word of God. Therefore for one to have faith he must hear / understand the word of God which infants are not capable of doing.



Josiah said:
The koine Greek word "kai" is simply the most generic, most general, most non-specific connecting word in the Greek language. It in no way mandates or even implies order - much less dogmatically mandate sequence. It just associates things. Your rubric that "and" mandates sequence creates ENORMOUS problems. "I got up this morning, kissed my wife, visited the bathroom, wandered out to the kitchen and made coffee, got dressed." It's all 100% accurate and grammatically correct but I did not do them in that order. Nor is it mandated to do them in that order and forbidden to do so otherwise. Breathing and living are certainly associated but it is wrong to insist they are dogmatically mandated to happen in that sequence and forbidden otherwise.

There are 3 words in koine Greek that to various levels suggests or even mandates order, sequence, chronology. None of them is used in any sentence in Greek where the word "baptism" also appears. Seems to ME likely that if chronology mattered, one of those 3 words (depending upon HOW MUCH mandated) would appear. They never do.

Mark 16:16 "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved;..."

(1) the order of the verse clearly has belief BEFORE baptism and baptism BEFORE saved. Changing this order is nothing more than an attempt to pervert God's word in an what will be a failed effort to change God's word to fit a man made idea.

John 5:24 "Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and (kai) believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life."

The order of this verse has hearing BEFORE believing and believing BEFORE having everlasting life.

a) if you do not think order matters, then explain how one can believe and then hear, that is, how one can believe what he has never heard cf Romans 10:14-16?
b) infants are not capable of hearing nor believing per John 5:24 much less be baptized per Mark 16:16.

(2) all kai does is tie belief to baptism making them inseparable therefore making both belief and baptism necessary before one can be saved.

(3) Mark 16:16 and the example I gave about climbing a mountain, planting a flag then receiving $10K both have a logical progression of steps where there are necessary prerequisites that must be met before the next step can be made. Your example above lacks a logical progression of steps with necessary prerequisites therefore you are making an apple to oranges comparison.


Josiah said:
No one baptizes himself.


Thank you for the conversation...


- Josiah
.

Hebrews 11:6 an infant being baptized that does have not faith is not pleasing to God. What a person does must be done in faith and infants cannot hear nor have faith/believe.

---In Christ's great commission, (Matthew 28:19-20) the ones taught are the ones to be baptized and the ones baptized are to "observe all things" commanded by Christ. Nothing here about infants for they cannot be taught, cannot hear/understand, cannot observe all things commanded by Christ. Baptism is how disciples are made and disciples are learners and followers of another, which eliminates infants for they have no such ability to learn and follow. New disciples are to teach other to observe all things Christ commanded...infants cannot do this either. Since baptism is to be done "in the name of" which means 'by the authority of' and the great commission gives NO authority whatsoever to baptize infants.

---Acts 2 those who heard/understood asked what they must do, infants cannot do this. Peter commanded them to repent AND be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins. The "and" ties repentance to baptism making BOTH necessary before one can have sins remitted. Again, Infants cannot repent so right here makes them not accountable to Peter's command. Infants have no sins to have remitted so they are not candidates for baptism. Therefore infant baptism is contrary to what is to be done "in the name of Jesus Christ", by the authority of Christ.

---Romans 7:8-9 Paul says for without the law sin was dead. Without law sin is dead, it has no power. But then Paul said he was once alive "without the law" meaning there was a time in his life (as an infant) he was dead to sin, sin had no power over him. Therefore as an infant he was not accountable, ameanble to God's laws/commands meaning he is was NOT accountable, NOT required to follow to the commands to believe, repent or be baptized.


---Hebrews 5:9 salvation is a matter of individual obedience to the Lord's commands. No parent can obey for their infant. Infant are not capable of individual obedience. Nor does the Bible allow for proxy baptisms, Acts 2:38.



Obviously, infant baptism is going above, beyond that which is written 1 Corinthians 4:6.
 

Ernest T. Bass

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Without the grace of God, the human race will have rot in hell!

So are you saying you’re different from the rest of mankind that God somehow saw some good in you?

The Book of Psalms is an integral part of the Bible because the Bible is one cohesive whole. So is the Book of Romans is an integral part of the Scriptures.

Romans 3:10 reads:
“As it is written, there is none righteous no, not one.

Again, the Psalms 58:3 specifically speaks about God bring judgment to the wicked. Not all are wicked if so then all will be lost none lacking.


Jun2u said:
You are correct Jeremiah did NOT say a person is born with a deceitful and wicked heart. God did through Paul, who was under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit, in Romans 3:10, “as holy men of God spoke as they were moved by the Holy Spirit” (2 Peter 1:21).

Paul does not ever say one is born with sin, with a deceitful wicked heart.
--John says sin is transgression of the law 1 John 3:4
--therefore no sin exists unless a law is transgressed
--in Roman 7:8-9 Paul shows as an infant he was "without law" whereby sin had no power over him, sin was dead to him. He therefore was NOT accountable to God's law, therefore not accountable to God's commands believe, repent or be baptized nor could Paul as an infant do any of these things.


Jun2u said:
You must not have read 1 Corinthians 15:22“ where Paul declares “as in Adam all die!”

It is obvious you and I cannot come into any kind of agreement because you follow a different gospel from that of the Bible whereas, I follow the Gospel of the Lord Jesus Christ.

To God Be The Glory

1 Cor 15:22 "(a) For as in Adam all die, even so in (b) Christ shall all be made alive."

-- this verse does not remotely teach the man made idea of original sin.

-- if (a) is true then (b) is also true

--"all" refers to the same people both times.

--all (a) physically die as a consequence of Adam's sin, it is also true that (b) same all will be physically resurrected as a consequence of Christ being raised from the dead. Christ entered the human race and therefore died physically as a consequence of Adam's sin not because He inherited Adam's sin.

--Since both (a) and (b) are both true, then if (a) teach ALL die spiritually due to having inheriting Adam's sin then (b) teaches that same ALL will be made spiritually alive and you are pushing the idea of Universalism.
 

Josiah

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You posted "I can find no verse that states, "all those who receive baptism must FIRST come to faith in Jesus..." Mark 16:16 puts believing before baptism.



Well, it puts it first in the SENTENCE but not necessarily in sequence. Once again, the word is "and" not "then." The Greek word here is "kai" and it's the most general, most generic, most non-specific connecting word in the whole language - it ONLY means things are associated. "I got up this morning and visited the bathroom and got dressed and made the coffee" is all correct, but I didn't do them in that order. Your premise, that "kai" mandates sequence, produces a LOT of problems. But the premise is simply false. And friend, there are THREE words in Greek that can mean "then" that can at least imply sequence. And none of those 3 appear in any text with the word "baptism"



What Polycarp did does not matter at all

I simply noted that not one Christian for 1500 years saw the word "then" in any baptism text, not one say this "implication" that that German Anabaptist suddenly (out of the blue) "saw" EVERYONE.... every Christian.... from at least Polycarp (a disciple of the Apostle John) in 69 AD.... saw nothing that indicates, "But thou art forbidden to grant this to any under the age of _____."




all that matters is what the Bible says for the repository of God's truth is His word


Okay. Quote any text that in the Greek says "first do _______ and THEN baptize." Quote any that says, "But thou art forbidden to baptize any untill they hath first attaineth their ____ birthday."

Where are these prohibitions stated? Where are this "FIRST.... THEN..." prerequistes stated in the words of Scripture? The prohibitions and sequentia mandates that not one human being even noticed until some German Anabaptists in the 16th Century? If the prohibitions and "first... then...." Scriptures are there (and NO ONE HUMAN noticed for 1500 years), quote them.




Infants cannot believe

Nor can adults. Faith is "the free gift of God." 1 Corinthians 12:3 Ephesians 2:8

But this thread is about infant baptism, not whether a dead atheist can - with a inert God - simply come to faith. It's about the SCRIPTURE regarding age restrictions for baptism.

Like you pointed out, we're discussing the words we see in Scripture.... and the issue here is what words state that we are forbidden to grant baptism to those under the age of ______.




Mark 16:16 "He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved;..."


Yup. "And". Not "then."

Your position requires that we delete the word in Scripture and replace it with a different word. Anyone can come up with anything if they just delete what's there and replace it with what's not. Like you said, what matters is what SCRIPTURE SAYS, not what one deletes and then inserts in place of it.



John 5:24 "Verily, verily, I say unto you, He that heareth my word, and (kai) believeth on him that sent me, hath everlasting life, and shall not come into condemnation; but is passed from death unto life."


No mention of baptism. No mention of age restrictions. No word "then."




Hebrews 11:6 an infant being baptized that does have not faith is not pleasing to God


No one baptizes themselves. While it's a huge stretch (and Hebrews 11:6 never even mentions Baptism), it would apply here only if the infant baptized himself or herself, which I've never seen. I've never seen anyone (with or without faith, of ANY age or gender or ethnicity or education) baptize themselves.



infants cannot hear nor have faith/believe

Where is the verse, "God cannot give faith to those under the age of _____?" Like you said, it's the words in Scripture that matter.

Matthew 18:6

Mark 10:13-15

Luke 1:41 (does Scripture indicate the leaping of John as an act of faith?)

1 Corinthians 12:3 (does it say INFANTS or "NO ONE"?)


But again, this thread is not about whether God is rendered impotent by those who have not yet reached their _____th birthday, it's about the words of Scripture and whether those words forbid the giving of baptism to those under the age of _____, if they state the anti-PAEDObaptism view invented by the Anabaptists in the 16th Century.


Thank you for the conversation.


- Josiah



.
 

Jun2u

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Absolutely true. With water baptism that is... With that I don't believe its wrong. I can see it as an act of faith though.

I’ve never said water baptism was wrong. What I’ve said was it had no spiritual value. An act of faith to what purpose as it is only a sign?

The priest was Eli... Not even a great priest. The woman was Hanna and the child was Samuel.

Given that Samuel didn't know the Lord yet, I don't look at infant baptism as being so bad. Samuel still had to say, "Your sevant heareth thee" before it took root. But it was a good start.

The story of Samuel happened to two other individuals also which were John the Baptist and Paul. All three were under the Nazarite Vows.

Nazarite means “to separate or abstain” (see Numbers 6:1-8).

1. In Samuel’s case, Hannah prayed to God that if He gave her a son she would consecrate to give him for the service to God 1 Samuel 1:9-11.
2. In John the Baptist’s case, he did not drink wine nor strong drink Luke 1:15.
3. Paul ended his vow by cutting off his hair before sailing to Syria Acts 18:18.

All three have the characteristics of a Nazarite Vow.

I hope this help.

To God Be The Glory
 

Jun2u

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Again, the Psalms 58:3 specifically speaks about God bring judgment to the wicked. Not all are wicked if so then all will be lost none lacking.

Again, I say besides Ps 58, read Ro 3:10 for it is self-explanatory!

As I’ve suspected all along you have no sense nor understanding of Scripture. You critique the Bible like it is an ordinary book. Well, my friend, it is a historical, spiritual, as well as a law book, and must be discerned spiritually. 1 Cor 2:14

Paul does not ever say one is born with sin, with a deceitful wicked heart.
--John says sin is transgression of the law 1 John 3:4
--therefore no sin exists unless a law is transgressed

So when was the law first enacted?

--in Roman 7:8-9 Paul shows as an infant he was "without law" whereby sin had no power over him, sin was dead to him. He therefore was NOT accountable to God's law, therefore not accountable to God's commands believe, repent or be baptized nor could Paul as an infant do any of these things.

No, Paul did NOT say he was without law as an infant rather, he said he was “ALIVE” without the law once.” Please do not add words to Scriptures. You do err because you don't understand what Ps 58 stipulates.

Do you have any idea at all when Paul was alive without the law once? Not as an infant as you say I assure you, I’m pretty sure you don’t know seeing how you read and understand Scripture.

1 Cor 15:22 "(a) For as in Adam all die, even so in (b) Christ shall all be made alive."

-- this verse does not remotely teach the man made idea of original sin.

-- if (a) is true then (b) is also true

--"all" refers to the same people both times.

The word “all” in part “a” and part “b” does NOT connote the same. If it did then there would be contradictions in Scriptures and we know there are none. It is our understanding that is faulty.

Every Christian understands the meaning of 1 Cor 15:22 except you. The first “all” means each and every yes but the second “all” cannot mean the same because Jesus came to save the sins only of His people. Mathew 1:21.

For example, Caesar Augustus proclaimed that All the world should be taxed. Does this mean every country in the world that existed at that time were to be taxed? No! Only those countries that Rome conquered. One example, Rome never conquered China.

No worry. There are many others here who believe Jesus paid for the sins of the whole world so as to claim if Jesus paid for the sins of the whole then man can choose to be saved or not. Salvation is of God. NEVER man!

So you see, the word “all” does not mean the same depending on context.

I wish people would do their homework before embarking to teach or give "likes."

To God Be The Glory
 
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Ernest T. Bass

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Again, I say besides Ps 58, read Ro 3:10 for it is self-explanatory!

As I’ve suspected all along you have no sense nor understanding of Scripture. You critique the Bible like it is an ordinary book. Well, my friend, it is a historical, spiritual, as well as a law book, and must be discerned spiritually. 1 Cor 2:14

Again, the Psalmists is speaking about the wicked who GO astray, not BORN astray. And the Psalmist is asking God to punish the wicked, not punish everyone including himself.

No one here is a spiritual man who has been supernaturally endowed with inspiration from the Holy Spirit.


Jun2u said:
So when was the law first enacted?

The first law would have been in the garden of Eden. But we today are under the NT gospel dispensation therefore we are under God's NT gospel laws/commands, the "perfect law of liberty" James 1:25. And violation of these NT laws/commands is sin and the newly conceived or newly born are not capable of breaking God's NT laws/commands nor are they accountable.

Also, I asked earlier, if you are taking these passages as literal then is one a sinner at conception per Psalms 51:5 or not until birth Psalms 58:3?


Jun2u said:
No, Paul did NOT say he was without law as an infant rather, he said he was “ALIVE” without the law once.” Please do not add words to Scriptures. You do err because you don't understand what Ps 58 stipulates.

Do you have any idea at all when Paul was alive without the law once? Not as an infant as you say I assure you, I’m pretty sure you don’t know seeing how you read and understand Scripture.

...and at what point in his life would he have been 'without law' whereby he could not sin, sin had no power over him? As an infant. Romans 7:8-9 shows he was NOT born with sin, but sin was something that sprang up in him later in life when he learned God's commandments/laws. And transgressed those laws THEN he became a sinner.


Jun2u said:
The word “all” in part “a” and part “b” does NOT connote the same. If it did then there would be contradictions in Scriptures and we know there are none. It is our understanding that is faulty.

Every Christian understands the meaning of 1 Cor 15:22 except you. The first “all” means each and every yes but the second “all” cannot mean the same because Jesus came to save the sins only of His people. Mathew 1:21.

Yes ALL refers to the same people both times.

"(a) For as in Adam all die, even so (b) in Christ shall all be made alive."

If (a) is true then (b) is equally true. If 'all' in means everyone in (a) then it is equally true 'all' in (b) also means everyone.

Jesus did not come to save the sins only of the Jews but of 'all' John 3:16.

Jun2u said:
For example, Caesar Augustus proclaimed that All the world should be taxed. Does this mean every country in the world that existed at that time were to be taxed? No! Only those countries that Rome conquered. One example, Rome never conquered China.

This has no application to 1 Cor 15:22. You are changing horses in the middle of the stream in that you are changing the meaning of 'all' in the verse NOT based upon anything in the context but solely based upon your theological bias.


Jun2u said:
No worry. There are many others here who believe Jesus paid for the sins of the whole world so as to claim if Jesus paid for the sins of the whole then man can choose to be saved or not. Salvation is of God. NEVER man!

So you see, the word “all” does not mean the same depending on context.

I wish people would do their homework before embarking to teach or give "likes."

To God Be The Glory

Salvation is of God but God gave man a role in his own salvation, Philippians 2:12

Romans 5:18 "Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life."

Will you argue 'all men' do not refer to the same people both times in this verse?

Of course "all men" refer to the same people both times for Paul's point is that "all men" are on BOTH the receiving of condemnation and the free gift of grace (Titus 2:11). ALL MEN are CONDITIONALLY on the receiving end of condemnation when they sin, (Romans 5:12) transgress God's law. And that same ALL MEN are CONDITIONALLY on the receiving end of grace (Titus 2:11).

So there is not a single verse that says ALL MEN are UNconditionally made sinners simply for being born with original sin but just SOME MEN receive grace.
 

Jun2u

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Again, the Psalmists is speaking about the wicked who GO astray, not BORN astray. And the Psalmist is asking God to punish the wicked, not punish everyone including himself.

No one here is a spiritual man who has been supernaturally endowed with inspiration from the Holy Spirit.




The first law would have been in the garden of Eden. But we today are under the NT gospel dispensation therefore we are under God's NT gospel laws/commands, the "perfect law of liberty" James 1:25. And violation of these NT laws/commands is sin and the newly conceived or newly born are not capable of breaking God's NT laws/commands nor are they accountable.

Also, I asked earlier, if you are taking these passages as literal then is one a sinner at conception per Psalms 51:5 or not until birth Psalms 58:3?




...and at what point in his life would he have been 'without law' whereby he could not sin, sin had no power over him? As an infant. Romans 7:8-9 shows he was NOT born with sin, but sin was something that sprang up in him later in life when he learned God's commandments/laws. And transgressed those laws THEN he became a sinner.




Yes ALL refers to the same people both times.

"(a) For as in Adam all die, even so (b) in Christ shall all be made alive."

If (a) is true then (b) is equally true. If 'all' in means everyone in (a) then it is equally true 'all' in (b) also means everyone.

Jesus did not come to save the sins only of the Jews but of 'all' John 3:16.



This has no application to 1 Cor 15:22. You are changing horses in the middle of the stream in that you are changing the meaning of 'all' in the verse NOT based upon anything in the context but solely based upon your theological bias.




Salvation is of God but God gave man a role in his own salvation, Philippians 2:12

Romans 5:18 "Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life."

Will you argue 'all men' do not refer to the same people both times in this verse?

Of course "all men" refer to the same people both times for Paul's point is that "all men" are on BOTH the receiving of condemnation and the free gift of grace (Titus 2:11). ALL MEN are CONDITIONALLY on the receiving end of condemnation when they sin, (Romans 5:12) transgress God's law. And that same ALL MEN are CONDITIONALLY on the receiving end of grace (Titus 2:11).

So there is not a single verse that says ALL MEN are UNconditionally made sinners simply for being born with original sin but just SOME MEN receive grace.

I suppose I can't argue you or anyone else to heaven but let it suffice that the true Gospel has been preached unto you.

You couldn't even understand a simple plain teaching of Matthew 1:21 let alone understand the rest of Scripture which you have displayed. in your previous post.

To God Be The Glory