Ah! Wonderful! THIS IS TRUTH ... which you have seen without having seen it ... yet.
How could
Matthew 21:1-11 Mark 11:1-11 Luke 19:28-44 John 12:12-19 possibly
FULFILL Matthew 23:39, when they all occur chronologically BEFORE Matthew 23:39 and Matthew 23:39 chronologically and historically came after
Matthew 21:1-11 Mark 11:1-11 Luke 19:28-44 John 12:12-19?
"On the very same day" (
Matthew 21:1-11 Mark 11:1-11 Luke 19:28-44 John 12:12-19) Jesus entered Jerusalem, He pronounced Matthew 23:39 as well.
Matthew 21:1-11 Mark 11:1-11 Luke 19:28-44 John 12:12-19 do not in terms of dates and days or even years or aeons '
occur chronologically BEFORE Matthew 23:39'. They all '
occurred' -were spoken by Jesus- on "
The Very Same Day" and date, Ezekiel 40:1; 1:28-2:3ff Genesis 7:13; 15:18, 17:24, 'Palm Sunday' "
the tenth day of the First Month", Exodus 12:3 Josua 4:19.
...and were and are all fulfilled by Him, in Him, and through Him "The All in all fulfilling Fullness of God", having Raised from the dead, and will be fulfilled by Him again, for us, when He will come again to us.
OK, Mt 23:39 is definitely later in the same day as His OT prophesied entrance in Mt 21, but that changes nothing. Just because it was the same day doesn't mean that Mt 23:39 is associated with the fulfilling of the same prophecy as His entrance. After Acts 21, it was back to business as usual. In Acts 22, the same day, Christ spoke to the multitude/Pharisees about the Kingdom, in Parables, as He said He would always do, starting in Mt 13 when He pronounced the curse of Isa 6:9-10 on them in Mt 13:14-15. Then, in the entirety of Mt 23, He condemns the Pharisees, with all the repetitions of, "Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites!" Then, at the end, He tells them that they will never see Him again until YE (the Pharisees) say, "
Blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord". Where do the Pharisees EVER say that? How can you say that that has Ever been fulfilled? Israel (12 tribes), as a nation, has never seen Him since and they have NEVER, EVER said, "
Blessed is he that cometh in the name of the Lord." There is absolutely no doubt that he was talking about Himself. Mt 23:39 was NEVER close to being FULFILLED!! It will be, though, in about 50 years, (+ or -).
Also, what about Ac 3:19-20, which says that, when Israel repents, God will send His Son?
What about the verses that say that John the Baptist would have been Elijah, had Israel repented and accepted Christ as the promised Messiah?
Christ well NEVER return until Israel, as a nation, accepts Him as their Messiah and, until He returns, Israel is not saved (Ac 3:19). It's impossible that Israel CAN accept Him during this present 2000 year parenthetical period that started in 64AD, in Acts 28:28, when the Salvation of God (Jesus Christ) was taken from Israel and given to the Gentiles, who had NEVER had Jesus Christ before, Eph 2:11-12. Israel was the wife of God until they were divorced in Acts. The Greek word translated "departed", in Acts 28:25, is translated 12 times as "divorced" or words meaning divorce, like "put her away".
Israel can't accept Christ today, because there is no Israel today, in God's eyes. In God's eyes, Israel is just another nation - Gentiles. However, in about 2064, the tiny Gentile church, unseen by 99.9% of Christendom and every denomination, found only in Paul's 7 post-Acts epistles (the only church existing since 64AD), will be resurrected in the Appearing to the Heavenly Places, where Christ sits at the right hand of God, Eph 1:20 (Christ), Eph 2:6 (Us). At that same time, Israel will be back in God's graces and OT prophecy will once again be fulfilled - none has been fulfilled since Israel was set aside in 64AD. All OT prophecy involves Israel. None of it can be fulfilled when there is no Israel. 1948 being prophetic was a Grand Hoax, as one author calls it. The Jews are all individuals today, not My (God's) People, Hos 1:9
