Easter

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BARNEY BRIGHT

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And there you go lying again . . .

And I never said that bunny rabbits had anything to do with Easter. That's just a chap diversionary tactic of yours so that the attention is taken away from your woefully-ignorant comments about everything else. I did, however, give you a history lesson on the tradition of the painted Easter egg and it's very Christian origins.

It's probably better that you stop lying now because I'll just expose you every time you do . . .

I'm not saying you specifically are saying bunny rabbits has anything to do with the resurrection of my Lord Jesus Christ. You and I both know this tradition of eggs and bunny rabbits started centuries ago, but most people today along with many churches celebrate Easter by hiding eggs for children to find and by buying Easter egg baskets filled with candied eggs and chocolate bunnies and other candies and gifts. The point is this, eggs and rabbits are from paganism which is false worship, basically idols. The scriptures show us that idols is about demons. You don't take what belongs to demons and associate it with what belongs or comes from God. God has never approved it and he still doesn't. The other point is this I don't have to celebrate Easter or Christmas or any other day people say I must when I see nowhere in the scriptures that I must celebrate these days. I don't follow what imperfect humans say I must do. If what they say is in agreement with scripture then I'll agree but if not I won't agree.
 

marksman

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You participate in some traditions but not others....hmmmmm!!

BTW...your picture shows two cats "cuddling" but the caption reads something about your granddaughter.....Just FYI....:rolleyes:

What are those traditions I attend?

I am glad you raised my avatar. I changed it and I could not get rid of the words underneath. Any ideas?
 

GerhardEbersoehn

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when you take all things into consideration, a Wednesday crucifixion and Wednesday crucifixion works out perfectly without idioms and every minute detail included.

Don't just claim it; show it with every minute detail included IN SCRIPTURE. Only then will you have taken all things into consideration and I tell you, a Wednesday Crucifixion does NOT work out with or without idioms or whatever.

So here is what the SCRIPTURES have to tell, chronologically, word for word, verse by verse, context to context, Gospel for Gospel,

Last Week: Monday : 4 days before Abib 15 is Abib 11

Mark 11:12-14 “the morrow Bethany ... fig tree” (41)

= Luke 21:29-33 “behold the fig tree” (41)

Mark 11:15-17 “into temple”; “cast out them that sold”; “moneychangers”; “house of prayer” (42)

= Matthew 21:12-14 “into the temple ... cast out them that sold” (43)

= Luke 19:45,46 “into the temple ... cast out them that sold ... house of prayer” (43)

= Matthew 21:15-17 “children in the temple” (44)

= John 12:20-26 “Greeks … corn of wheat … for this cause I came”: 27 (44)

Mark 11:18 “sought how they might destroy him” (45)

= Luke 19:47,48 “sought to destroy him” (46)

Mark 11:19 “late ... he went out of the city” (46)

= Matthew 21:17 “out of the city into Bethany ... slept in sheepfold” (46)

Last Week: Tuesday : TEACHING 3 days before (Friday) Abib 15 is Abib 12

Mark 11:20 “early ... fig tree dried up” (47)

= Matthew 21:18-22; 45,46 “in the morning ... fig tree” cursed and “immediately dried up” (47)

Mark 11:27,28 “in Jerusalem in temple ... by what authority” (48)

= Matthew 21:23-25 “in temple ... what authority” (49)

= Luke 20:1-8 “one of Those Days ... what authority” (50)

Mark 12:35-37 “Jesus in the temple ... Dawid” (51)

= Matthew 22:23; 41-46 “the Same Day” (52)

= Matthew 24:1-3 “out of temple … not be left one stone … on Mount of Olives disciples came privately” (53)

= Matthew 26:1-2 “after two days ... crucified” (53)

= John 12:27-36 “this hour ... if I be lifted up from the earth” (54)

= Luke 21:34-38 “on One of Those Days ... Watch that That Day come not upon you unawares” (56)

Last Week: Wednesday : 2 days before (Friday) Abib 15 is Abib 13

Mark 14:1,2 “after two days was the unleavened (days)”“sought how might take him ... not on feast” (57)

= Matthew 26:3-5 “consulted that they might take Jesus ... not on feast” (57)

= Luke 22:1,2 “feast drew near ... sought how” (58)

Mark 14:3-9 “house of Simon .. spikenard on head” (58)

= Matteus 26:6-13 “house of Simon .. spikenard on head” (59)

Mark 14:10,11 “Judas to priests ... promised him money” (61)

= Matthew 26:14-16 “Judas to priests ... covenanted thirty pieces silver” (61)

= Luke 22:3-6 “satan in Judas ... communed with priests ... covenanted money” (61)

= John 12:37-50 “he that rejecteth me ... receiveth not my words” (62)


B) Three days : "the first day"

Last Week: Thursday Abib 14 was 1 day “before” (Friday) Abib 15 (69)

2Chronicles 35:4,6,10,14 “prepared passover … killed the passover”

= Exodus 12:15a “when they removed leaven”

= Leviticus 23:22,10 “when ye reap the corners ... bring the first sheaf”

Mark 14:12—15:41 “when they always killed the passover”

= Luke 22:7—23:49 “when they had to kill the passover”

= Mark 14:2 “not on the feast”

= Matthew 26:5 “not on the feast”

= John 19:14-30 “The Preparation of the Passover”

= Matthew 26:17—27:56 “the first day leaven was removed / the first day without leaven”

= John 12:32,34; 8:28 “the Son of Man must be lifted up”

= John 13:1—19:30 “before the feast ... his hour ... it was night ...”

= 1Corinthians 11:23 "The night in which the Lord was betrayed"

= John 16:32 “the hour ... ye shall be scattered every man”

“Three days” the second of :

= “the first day seven days ye shall eat unleavened bread” Exodus 12:15b; 12:18b Leviticus 23:6

= Last Week: Friday : Feast Day Sabbath of Passover was “Abib 15” (Friday)

Exodus 12:15,17,18,42,51

Mark 15:42-47 “having been evening already … since The Preparation which is the Fore-Sabbath having begun”

= John 19:31-42 “since the Preparation had begun ... because That Day was great-day-sabbath (of passover)”

= Matthew 27:57-61

= Luke 23:50-56a
 
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GerhardEbersoehn

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when you take all things into consideration, a Wednesday crucifixion and Saturday crucifixion works out perfectly without idioms and every minute detail included.


Don't just claim it; show it with every minute detail included IN SCRIPTURE. Only then will you have taken all things into consideration and I tell you, a Wednesday Crucifixion does NOT work out with or without idioms or whatever.


So here is what the SCRIPTURES have to tell, textually and contextually, word for word, verse by verse, context to context, Gospel for Gospel, chronologically...


Last Week: Monday : 4 days before Abib 15 is Abib 11


Mark 11:12-14 “the morrow Bethany ... fig tree” (41)


= Luke 21:29-33 “behold the fig tree” (41)


Mark 11:15-17 “into temple”; “cast out them that sold”; “moneychangers”; “house of prayer” (42)


= Matthew 21:12-14 “into the temple ... cast out them that sold” (43)


= Luke 19:45,46 “into the temple ... cast out them that sold ... house of prayer” (43)


= Matthew 21:15-17 “children in the temple” (44)


= John 12:20-26 “Greeks … corn of wheat … for this cause I came”: 27 (44)


Mark 11:18 “sought how they might destroy him” (45)


= Luke 19:47,48 “sought to destroy him” (46)


Mark 11:19 “late ... he went out of the city” (46)


= Matthew 21:17 “out of the city into Bethany ... slept in sheepfold” (46)


Last Week: Tuesday : TEACHING 3 days before (Friday) Abib 15 is Abib 12


Mark 11:20 “early ... fig tree dried up” (47)


= Matthew 21:18-22; 45,46 “in the morning ... fig tree” cursed and “immediately dried up” (47)


Mark 11:27,28 “in Jerusalem in temple ... by what authority” (48)


= Matthew 21:23-25 “in temple ... what authority” (49)


= Luke 20:1-8 “one of Those Days ... what authority” (50)


Mark 12:35-37 “Jesus in the temple ... Dawid” (51)


= Matthew 22:23; 41-46 “the Same Day” (52)


= Matthew 24:1-3 “out of temple … not be left one stone … on Mount of Olives disciples came privately” (53)


= Matthew 26:1-2 “after two days ... crucified” (53)


= John 12:27-36 “this hour ... if I be lifted up from the earth” (54)


= Luke 21:34-38 “on One of Those Days ... Watch that That Day come not upon you unawares” (56)


Last Week: Wednesday : 2 days before (Friday) Abib 15 is Abib 13


Mark 14:1,2 “after two days was the unleavened (days)”“sought how might take him ... not on feast” (57)


= Matthew 26:3-5 “consulted that they might take Jesus ... not on feast” (57)


= Luke 22:1,2 “feast drew near ... sought how” (58)


Mark 14:3-9 “house of Simon .. spikenard on head” (58)


= Matteus 26:6-13 “house of Simon .. spikenard on head” (59)


Mark 14:10,11 “Judas to priests ... promised him money” (61)


= Matthew 26:14-16 “Judas to priests ... covenanted thirty pieces silver” (61)


= Luke 22:3-6 “satan in Judas ... communed with priests ... covenanted money” (61)


= John 12:37-50 “he that rejecteth me ... receiveth not my words” (62)



B) Three days : "the first day"


Last Week: Thursday Abib 14 was 1 day “before” (Friday) Abib 15 (69)


2Chronicles 35:4,6,10,14 “prepared passover … killed the passover”


= Exodus 12:15a “when they removed leaven”


= Leviticus 23:22,10 “when ye reap the corners ... bring the first sheaf”


Mark 14:12—15:41 “when they always killed the passover”


= Luke 22:7—23:49 “when they had to kill the passover”


= Mark 14:2 “not on the feast”


= Matthew 26:5 “not on the feast”


= John 19:14-30 “The Preparation of the Passover”


= Matthew 26:17—27:56 “the first day leaven was removed / the first day without leaven”


= John 12:32,34; 8:28 “the Son of Man must be lifted up”


= John 13:1—19:30 “before the feast ... his hour ... it was night ...”


= 1Corinthians 11:23 "The night in which the Lord was betrayed"


= John 16:32 “the hour ... ye shall be scattered every man”


“Three days” the second of :


= “the first day seven days ye shall eat unleavened bread” Exodus 12:15b; 12:18b Leviticus 23:6


= Last Week: Friday : Feast Day Sabbath of Passover was “Abib 15” (Friday)


Exodus 12:15,17,18,42,51


Mark 15:42-47 “having been evening already … since The Preparation which is the Fore-Sabbath having begun”


= John 19:31-42 “since the Preparation had begun ... because That Day was great-day-sabbath (of passover)”


= Matthew 27:57-61


= Luke 23:50-56a
 
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GerhardEbersoehn

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The real first day began what we call Saturday at sunset. This starts at Mark 11:1, Matthew 21:1 and Luke 19:29.

The second day is Sunday evening to Monday evening. This coincides with Mark 11:12 and Matthew 21:18.

The accurate model notes that Tuesday at sunset is when Jesus went to the Garden to pray. Later that morning he was arrested and what we call Wednesday morning at dawn is when " the cock crowed" for Peter.

The problem with this rendition of the Markan timeline is that it stretches things out way too much at this point. It thinks that "two days before" and " on the first day of unleavened bread" are question to begin a new day. That simply is not correct.

When you stick with just the Mark timeline you miss many crucial details. You miss that there was a high Sabbath (that started Wednesday at Sunset), you miss that the women bought spices after the Sabbath but prepared them before the Sabbath (proving that there were 2 Sabbath's on non-consecutive days), you miss when soldiers were guarding the tomb and when they weren't guarding the tomb and you miss that by one account that Jesus was already risen by sunset on Saturday.

I have been looking at a model of the timeline from the Companion Bible. It's a bit at odds with what I previously believe, but it reconciles by Tuesday morning... Tuesday evening at worst.

But when you take all things into consideration, a Wednesday crucifixion and Saturday ressurection works out perfectly without idioms and every minute detail included.

So... Dont expect me to support this timeline when you didn't even get day one right.

The real first day began what we call Saturday at sunset. This starts at Mark 11:1, Matthew 21:1 and Luke 19:29.


What do you mean with <The real first day>? “The first day they KILLED the passover”? <This> cannot have been.


I therefore assume you mean the First Day of the week, ‘Palm Sunday’, the Entrance into Jerusalem : 5 days before Abib 15 which was Abib 10 / “the tenth day of the First Month” Exodus 12:3 Ezekiel 40:1 “Bone-day”

= John 12:12-19 “the next morning” (50)

= Mark 11:1-11 Bethany; into Jerusalem; into temple; late out to Bethany (53)

= Matthew 21:1-11 Bethfage; into Jerusalem (54)

= Luke 19:28-44 Bethfage and Bethany; into Jerusalem (56)


It fits your description, <day began what we call Saturday at sunset. This starts at Mark 11:1, Matthew 21:1 and Luke 19:29.>


So good; 1 day agreed over.


The second day is Sunday evening to Monday evening. This coincides with Mark 11:12 and Matthew 21:18.


So good; 2 days agreed over… Really?! No!, because, just read…


Monday of Last Week: 4 days before Abib 15 which was Abib 11


Mark 11:12-14 “the morrow Bethany ... fig tree” (41)


= Luke 21:29-33 “behold the fig tree” (41)


Mark 11:15-17 “into temple”; “cast out them that sold”; “moneychangers”; “house of prayer” (42)


= not <Matthew 21:18> but Matthew 21:12-14 “into the temple ... cast out them that sold” (43)



= Luke 19:45,46 “into the temple ... cast out them that sold ... house of prayer” (43)


= Matthew 21:15-17 “children in the temple” (44)


= John 12:20-26 “Greeks … corn of wheat … for this cause I came”: 27 (44)


Mark 11:18 “sought how they might destroy him” (45)


= Luke 19:47,48 “sought to destroy him” (46)


Mark 11:19 “late ... he went out of the city” (46)


= Matthew 21:17 “out of the city” __AGAIN__ “into Bethany __AGAIN__ “ ... slept in sheepfold” (46)


Your <accurate model> follows, of pure assumptions that stretch things out way too much in order to thump upon <a high Sabbath (that started Wednesday at Sunset) >!


The accurate model notes that Tuesday at sunset is when Jesus went to the Garden to pray. Later that morning he was arrested and what we call Wednesday morning at dawn is when " the cock crowed" for Peter.

The problem with this rendition of the Markan timeline is that it stretches things out way too much at this point. It thinks that "two days before" and " on the first day of unleavened bread" are question to begin a new day. That simply is not correct.

When you stick with just the Mark timeline you miss many crucial details. You miss that there was a high Sabbath (that started Wednesday at Sunset), you miss that the women bought spices after the Sabbath but prepared them before the Sabbath (proving that there were 2 Sabbath's on non-consecutive days), you miss when soldiers were guarding the tomb and when they weren't guarding the tomb and you miss that by one account that Jesus was already risen by sunset on Saturday.


I have been looking at a model of the timeline from the Companion Bible. It's a bit at odds with what I previously believe, but it reconciles by Tuesday morning... Tuesday evening at worst.


Why! Look at the Bible, not at ‘companions’!
 

BreadOfLife

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You expect me to remember something that happened 50 years ago. I have difficulty remembering what happened yesterday.
Sooooo your wife doesn't have any fingers on her hands? You can't simply look at her hand to see if you gave her a ring?? Let me help you then - you probably did. Just about EVERYBODY exchanges rings in a wedding ceremony.
This is a ritual that has PAGAN origins which was later "normalized" by non-pagans.

I guarantee yo that all of the Christian weddings you claim to have gone to also included rings.
Why don't you "boycott" weddings or force your wife to flush her wedding ring down the toilet?
 
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BreadOfLife

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Still not listening to me, I said I have a problem with anyone associating easter eggs and bunny rabbits with Easter if Easter we're truly about
I also have a problem with Easter bunnies.
I don't have a problem with Easter eggs, in their proper context - as I edcuated you about them earlier.
In the Lord’s Day
The apostle Paul refers to the Lord's Day as a time of judgment and of fulfillment of divine promises. (1 Corinthians 1:8; 2 Corinthians 1:14; Philippians 1:6, 10; 2:16) With the arrival of that “day,” Jehovah’s grand purposes move progressively toward their climax. That “day” begins with the crowning of Jesus as heavenly King. Even after Jesus executes judgment on Satan’s world, the Lord’s day continues, with the restoration of Paradise and the perfecting of mankind, until Jesus finally “hands over the kingdom to his God and Father.”—1 Corinthians 15:24-26; Revelation 6:1, 2.

The fulfillment of other Bible prophecies helps us to see when the Lord’s day begins. For example, Daniel described a chopping down of rulership in the line of King David; after “seven times” it would be known “that the Most High is Ruler in the kingdom of mankind, and that to the one whom he wants to he gives it.” (Daniel 4:23, 24, 31, 32) The major fulfillment of that prophecy started with the desolating of the kingdom of Judah, which is indicated by Bible evidence to have been completed by October 607 B.C.E. This is when the time of the gentiles began. Revelation 12:6, 14 shows that 3 1/2 times amounts to 1,260 days; hence, seven times (twice that number) must be 2,520 days. Reckoning “a day for a year,” we arrive at 2,520 years as the duration of the “seven times.” (Ezekiel 4:6) Therefore, Christ Jesus began his heavenly rule in the latter part of 1914. The erupting of the first world war in that year marked “a beginning of pangs of distress” that have continued to plague mankind. Since 1914, how remarkably events in this bloodstained earth have confirmed that year to be the start of the “day” of Jesus’ presence!—Matthew 24:3-14.

Hence, this first vision and the counsel it contains are for the Lord’s day, from 1914 onward. This timing is supported by the fact that, later in Revelation, the record describes the execution of God’s true and righteous judgments—events in which the Lord Jesus plays an outstanding part. (Revelation 11:18; 16:15; 17:1; 19:2, 11) If the fulfillment of the first vision began in 1914, when does it end? As the messages themselves show, the organization addressed is God’s congregation of anointed ones on earth. The fulfillment of this first vision ends, then, when the last faithful member of that anointed congregation dies and is raised to heavenly life. Nevertheless, the Lord’s Day, with blessings to the earthly other sheep, continues till the end of Jesus Christ’s Millennial Rule.—John 10:16; Revelation 20:4, 5.
Here's where you fall off the rails . . .

The "Lord's Day" as named in Rev. 1:10 and by the Early Church refers to Sunday because that was the day that the Lord rose from the dead. I gave you multiple testimonies from the Early Church Fathers on this fact, including a passage from The Didache (Teachings of the Twelve Apostles), which is a document written alongside the Gospels and Epistles.

The "Day" or the "Day of the Lord" spoken of in Scripture is the Day of Judgement which is different
(Isa. 24:21-22, Mal. 4:5, Zeph. 1:14-18, 1 Cor. 1:8, 1 Cor. 3:13). This is a SINGLE event - not a weekly event.

The consensus of your Protestant scholarship agrees that the "Lord's Day" refers to Sunday . . .
- Geneva Study Bible
- Barnes' Notes on the Bible
- Vincent's Word Studies
- Matthew Henry's Concise Commentary
- Pulpit Commentary
- Benson Commentary
- Bengel's Gnomen
- Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary
- Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges
- Expositor's Greek Testament
- MacLaren's Expositions
- Meyer's NT Commentary

- Ellicott's Commentary for English Readers states emphatically about YOUR erroneous conclusion:
There is no ground whatever for the futurist interpretation that this expression refers to the “Day of the Lord,” as in 2 Thessalonians 2:2. The phrase in this latter passage is totally different. The phrase here is. en te kuriake hemera. The adjective is applied by St. Paul (perhaps coined by him for the purpose) to the Lord’s Supper: from the Supper it came to be applied to the day on which Christians met for the breaking of bread. The day is still called κυριακὴ (kuriake) in the Levant.


You LOSE.

 
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Marymog

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What are those traditions I attend?

I am glad you raised my avatar. I changed it and I could not get rid of the words underneath. Any ideas?
You said you attend Christian weddings. There is nothing in scripture that says HOW to perform a wedding so any ceremony performed is done by “tradition”. ;)

I will look into the avatar thing and let you know what I find out.....IT specialist Mary
 

Marymog

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I am glad you raised my avatar. I changed it and I could not get rid of the words underneath. Any ideas?
I looked.....I can't figure it out either....Sorry. :(
 

Marymog

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You expect me to remember something that happened 50 years ago. I have difficulty remembering what happened yesterday.
Come on marksman.....Seriously????
 

FHII

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This is a ritual that has PAGAN origins which was later "normalized" by non-pagans.
I'd like to hear more about these "pagan" origins. I know they have roots in ancient Egypt and Rome. But I don't see anything connected to religion here.
 

BreadOfLife

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I'd like to hear more about these "pagan" origins. I know they have roots in ancient Egypt and Rome. But I don't see anything connected to religion here.
Everything I've ever read on the subject states that the origin of the wedding ring was an ancient Egyptian custom - about 4800 years ago. The symbol then was the same as today - a ring has no beginning and no end.

There are different theories about why it is placed on the 4th finger of the hand - some pagan and some Christian.
 

FHII

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that the origin of the wedding ring was an ancient Egyptian custom - about 4800 years ago. The symbol then was the same as today - a ring has no beginning and no end.
Yes, I have read the same thing. Yet I don't see it tied to worship of pagan Gods.

If you want to discuss " no beginning and no end" we can tie that to Adam and Eve. Bit I recall there was some discussion about it. If you believe that to be the source of "paganism" with the rings, please refresh my memory.

There are different theories about why it is placed on the 4th finger of the hand - some pagan and some Christian.
I have heard some theories too. None of them tied to pagan Gods. Perhaps more of inaccurate anatomy knowledge.

Let's look at what REALLY is going on. Is this an attempt to justify one's traditions that may have pagan origins by pointing out someone else's?
 

BARNEY BRIGHT

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I also have a problem with Easter bunnies.
I don't have a problem with Easter eggs, in their proper context - as I edcuated you about them earlier.

Here's where you fall off the rails . . .

The "Lord's Day" as named in Rev. 1:10 and by the Early Church refers to Sunday because that was the day that the Lord rose from the dead. I gave you multiple testimonies from the Early Church Fathers on this fact, including a passage from The Didache (Teachings of the Twelve Apostles), which is a document written alongside the Gospels and Epistles.

The "Day" or the "Day of the Lord" spoken of in Scripture is the Day of Judgement which is different
(Isa. 24:21-22, Mal. 4:5, Zeph. 1:14-18, 1 Cor. 1:8, 1 Cor. 3:13). This is a SINGLE event - not a weekly event.

The consensus of your Protestant scholarship agrees that the "Lord's Day" refers to Sunday . . .
- Geneva Study Bible
- Barnes' Notes on the Bible
- Vincent's Word Studies
- Matthew Henry's Concise Commentary
- Pulpit Commentary
- Benson Commentary
- Bengel's Gnomen
- Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary
- Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges
- Expositor's Greek Testament
- MacLaren's Expositions
- Meyer's NT Commentary

- Ellicott's Commentary for English Readers states emphatically about YOUR erroneous conclusion:
There is no ground whatever for the futurist interpretation that this expression refers to the “Day of the Lord,” as in 2 Thessalonians 2:2. The phrase in this latter passage is totally different. The phrase here is. en te kuriake hemera. The adjective is applied by St. Paul (perhaps coined by him for the purpose) to the Lord’s Supper: from the Supper it came to be applied to the day on which Christians met for the breaking of bread. The day is still called κυριακὴ (kuriake) in the Levant.


You LOSE.

You and others have the right to believe what you like, but I choose not to believe something simply because the majority of people believe it.
Contextual evidence indicates that “the Lord’s day” of Revelation 1:10 is not a particular 24-hour day. Since it was “by inspiration” that John came to be “in the Lord’s day,” the reference could not be to some particular day of the week. It would not have been necessary for John to have been inspired to come to a specific day of the week. Therefore, “the Lord’s day” must be that future time during which events that John was privileged to see in vision would occur. This included such happenings as the war in heaven and the ouster of Satan, the destruction of Babylon the Great and the kings of the earth and their armies, the binding and abyssing of Satan, the resurrection of the dead, and Christ’s Thousand Year Reign.

The context points to Jesus Christ as the Lord whose “day” it is. Immediately after coming to be “in the Lord’s day,” John heard, not the voice of Almighty God, but that of the resurrected Son of God. (Re 1:10-18) Also, the ‘day of the Lord’ mentioned at 1 Corinthians 1:8; 5:5; and 2 Corinthians 1:14 is that of Jesus Christ.
 

BARNEY BRIGHT

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I also have a problem with Easter bunnies.
I don't have a problem with Easter eggs, in their proper context - as I edcuated you about them earlier.

Here's where you fall off the rails . . .

The "Lord's Day" as named in Rev. 1:10 and by the Early Church refers to Sunday because that was the day that the Lord rose from the dead. I gave you multiple testimonies from the Early Church Fathers on this fact, including a passage from The Didache (Teachings of the Twelve Apostles), which is a document written alongside the Gospels and Epistles.

The "Day" or the "Day of the Lord" spoken of in Scripture is the Day of Judgement which is different
(Isa. 24:21-22, Mal. 4:5, Zeph. 1:14-18, 1 Cor. 1:8, 1 Cor. 3:13). This is a SINGLE event - not a weekly event.

The consensus of your Protestant scholarship agrees that the "Lord's Day" refers to Sunday . . .
- Geneva Study Bible
- Barnes' Notes on the Bible
- Vincent's Word Studies
- Matthew Henry's Concise Commentary
- Pulpit Commentary
- Benson Commentary
- Bengel's Gnomen
- Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary
- Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges
- Expositor's Greek Testament
- MacLaren's Expositions it
- Meyer's NT Commentary

- Ellicott's Commentary for English Readers states emphatically about YOUR erroneous conclusion:
There is no ground whatever for the futurist interpretation that this expression refers to the “Day of the Lord,” as in 2 Thessalonians 2:2. The phrase in this latter passage is totally different. The phrase here is. en te kuriake hemera. The adjective is applied by St. Paul (perhaps coined by him for the purpose) to the Lord’s Supper: from the Supper it came to be applied to the day on which Christians met for the breaking of bread. The day is still called κυριακὴ (kuriake) in the Levant.


You LOSE.

Sunday belongs indeed to the Lord, but the Scriptures nowhere call it ‘the Lord’s day.’ None of the Christian writings, for 100 years after Christ, ever call it ‘the Lord’s day.’ . . . I can see no essential difference between ἡ Κυριακη ἡμερα [hē Kyriakē hēmera] —the Lord’s day,— and ἡ ἡμερα Κυριου [hē hēmera Kyriou] —the day of the Lord. They are simply the two forms for signifying the same relations of the same things. . . . And when we come to consider the actual contents of this book, we find them harmonizing exactly with this understanding of its title. It takes as its chief and unmistakable themes what other portions of the Scriptures assign to the great day of the Lord.”—J. A. Seiss, The Apocalypse: Lectures on the Book of Revelation (Grand Rapids, MI: Zondervan Publishing House, 1966), 18.

6 Jerome Smith, The New Treasury of
 

GerhardEbersoehn

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The "Lord's Day" as named in Rev. 1:10 and by the Early Church refers to Sunday because that was the day that the Lord rose from the dead. I gave you multiple testimonies from the Early Church Fathers on this fact, including a passage from The Didache (Teachings of the Twelve Apostles), which is a document written alongside the Gospels and Epistles.

The "Day" or the "Day of the Lord" spoken of in Scripture is the Day of Judgement which is different
(Isa. 24:21-22, Mal. 4:5, Zeph. 1:14-18, 1 Cor. 1:8, 1 Cor. 3:13). This is a SINGLE event - not a weekly event.

It is pure untruth "the Lord's Day" is Sunday named in Rev. 1:10. Show how; I tell you it is impossible.

It is pure untruth "the Lord's Day" is referred to as Sunday by the Early or Apostolic Church of the first two centuries AD. Show me one example; I tell you there is not one.

Because "the Lord's Day" was the day that the Lord rose from the dead.

You did not give any testimonies from the Early Apostolic Church Fathers of the first two centuries AD proving anything for Sunday. You falsely claim that you did. Only fact is, you did not.

Including The Didache, which is not the 'Teachings of the Twelve Apostles', and was not written with or as of the same authenticity or authority as the Gospels and Epistles.

So, yes,
The "Day of the Lord" spoken of in Scripture is the Day of Judgement which is different
(Isa. 24:21-22, Mal. 4:5, Zeph. 1:14-18, 1 Cor. 1:8, 1 Cor. 3:13). This is a SINGLE event - not a weekly event. True!

The fact does not mean Sunday is the Lord's Day or the Day of the Lord.
 
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GerhardEbersoehn

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The consensus of your Protestant scholarship agrees that the "Lord's Day" refers to Sunday . . .
- Geneva Study Bible
- Barnes' Notes on the Bible
- Vincent's Word Studies
- Matthew Henry's Concise Commentary
- Pulpit Commentary
- Benson Commentary
- Bengel's Gnomen
- Jamieson-Fausset-Brown Bible Commentary
- Cambridge Bible for Schools and Colleges
- Expositor's Greek Testament
- MacLaren's Expositions
- Meyer's NT Commentary


- Ellicott's Commentary for English Readers states emphatically about YOUR erroneous conclusion

Pity though the above are Sunday Resurrection BIASED, COMMENTARIES; not one is an actual (unbiased) Translation.
 

GerhardEbersoehn

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There is no ground whatever for the futurist interpretation that this expression refers to the “Day of the Lord,” as in 2 Thessalonians 2:2. The phrase in this latter passage is totally different. The phrase here is. en te kuriake hemera. The adjective is applied by St. Paul (perhaps coined by him for the purpose) to the Lord’s Supper: from the Supper it came to be applied to the day on which Christians met for the breaking of bread. The day is still called κυριακὴ (kuriake) in the Levant.

In fact, the adjectival phrase, κυριακὴ <perhaps coined by Paul for the purpose> of the “the Lord’s / Lordly…” PASSOVER-OF-YAHWEH “…BREAD EAT(EN)…THE SAME NIGHT He was betrayed”, applies to the Lord’s Supper! 100%! Brilliant! You have made me see this for the first time from this angle, “the Lord’s Supper” eaten on “This That Selfsame BONE-Essential DAY” of the Lord Jesus’ SUFFERING OF THE LAST PASSOVER SUFFERING-OF-YAHWEH “the first day they KILLED the Passover” (for the last time).


What a truth exposed! Glory to the Lord of the Lord’s Supper!


Now it makes perfect sense, <from the Supper it came to be applied to the day on which Christians met for the breaking of bread. The day is called> ‘Kuriakeh Hehmera’ for the first time, in Christian, historic time, “the third day (of Passover) Christ rose from the dead according to the Scriptures” the PASSOVER-OF-YAHWEH-SCRIPTURES! [What I have maintained my life time long!]
 
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BreadOfLife

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Yes, I have read the same thing. Yet I don't see it tied to worship of pagan Gods.

If you want to discuss " no beginning and no end" we can tie that to Adam and Eve. Bit I recall there was some discussion about it. If you believe that to be the source of "paganism" with the rings, please refresh my memory.
I have heard some theories too. None of them tied to pagan Gods. Perhaps more of inaccurate anatomy knowledge.

Let's look at what REALLY is going on. Is this an attempt to justify one's traditions that may have pagan origins by pointing out someone else's?
No - they originated in pagan marriage ceremonies which is enough for a Christian to not want to duplicate.
UNLESS that Christian is re-defining the purpose of marriage from the pagan purpose.

The pagan cultures that started using wedding rings placed the ring on the woman as a sign that the man owned her. This is NOT true for Christian marriages.
Pagans placed the ring on the left hand because the left side was considered "weaker".
This is NOT true for Christian marriages.

Marriage in Christ is MUCH more equitable because in Christ, we are EQUAL.
In Christ, there is no male or female or Greek or Jew, or slave or free man. We are all ONE in the Lord (Gal. 3:28).

Don't you read the Bible??