I do disagree with this. But I see this error repeated many times throughout the forums. Israel was never justified by law keeping. Since the garden of Eden, the means by which man is justified has always and will always be by the grace and mercy of God. Now that doesn't mean that some individuals and perhaps even at times the nation, didn't think that they could be justified by their scrupulous keeping of the law. Such as in Christ's day when they thought their religion was saving them.
Law keeping EB was never intended as a means by which man could be justified or ultimately saved. The law was a reflection of God's character... His nature. In the beginning man was created in that image and likeness, but sin intervened and we were then born in the image and likeness of fallen Adam. The law was given as a reminder of what we once were, and what we could be again, by grace through faith after being born again. That law then is written again upon our hearts and once again we are not just declared righteous, but sanctified and made righteous... All by faith... All by grace.
But in the final analysis... In the end... Only law keepers will be ultimately saved. Not because they worked their way to salvation through their obedience, but because such is what God made them after having justified them through the cross. Law keepers. By grace through faith. Obedient servants of the most high.
"Here is the patience of the Saints. Here are they that keep the commandments of God, and have the faith of Jesus". Revelation 14:12
At no stage has anyone been justified by law keeping . Israel in the OT was justified by grace. Thus the lamb. Abraham was justified by grace. Thus the lamb. Adam was justified by grace. Thus the lamb.
We are justified by grace. Thus the Lamb.
Yes, Israel was not justified by law keeping. The OT law, without the shed blood of Christ, required perfect flawless law keeping for one to be totally justified before God under that law. Of course none could keep it perfect. But God tried to get Israel to understand that He was not looking for flawless law keeping from them, but just a simple, faithful obedience.
Paul points out in Romans 3:28 it is not by deeds of the law (works of flawless law keeping) by which one is justified but one is justified by faith. Then in Romans 4, Paul uses two examples, Abraham and David, and shows neither was justified by the OT law. Both men were ungodly, that is, both men sinned hence neither could be justified by the OT law since it required perfect law keeping. So how were they justified? By a simple obedient faith.
God has always had grace/mercy for those that strive to obey Him. God does not have mercy for those that choose to live in disobedience to Him. Romans 9:15 God says "
I will have mercy on whom I will have mercy," yet this verse does not give us a basis as to why God has mercy upon one person but not another. But we know from other Bible passages as Jeremiah 18:7-10 that
obedience to God is that basis. God did not have mercy for one disobedient King (Pharaoh) but He did have mercy for another King (Nineveh) that obediently repented. Jonah 10:8-10.
As you point out, the Christian is saved by "
grace through faith". It takes
BOTH God's grace
and man's faithful obedience to be saved. Note Paul's point in Romans 6. Since the Christian is saved by grace, does that give the Christian the right to sin (the right to not keep Christ's NT law)? No! - "
God forbid". So how does the Christian strive to keep from sinning? By being obedient to Christ's NT law, the gospel. Paul points out in Romans 6:16 that each of us are serving one of two masters, we are either serving:
1) sin unto death
or
2) obedience unto righteousness
So if one is not serving "
obedience unto righteousness" (not keeping Christ's NT law) then he is serving "
sin unto death"...there is no other option. Just because the Christian is saved by grace does not give him the right not to keep Christ's NT law. For if he is not striving to keep and obey Christ's NT law then he is serving sin unto death. It takes "obedience unto righteousness" to keep one from serving "sin unto death". Hence it takes God's grace and man's faithful obedience to be saved.
So no one will be saved by strict, flawless, perfect law keeping but one will be saved by a faithful obedience instead..."
obedience UNTO righteousness".
Ask people who have allowed themselves to follow Luther's idea of 'faith only" which master they serve, do they serve:
"sin unto death"
or
"obedience unto righteousness"
.....and watch the squirming begin.
EDIT: I need to also point out that keeping, obeying Christ's NT law.... "obedience unto righteousness"...... that obedience does not earn, merit God's grace. God's grace is a free gift but not an
UNconditional free gift. God has put the condition of obedience upon receiving His free gift. So even though God's grace has appeared to all men (Titus 2:11) all men will not be saved for all men will not conditionally obey (Hebrews 5:9).
Example: Hebrews 11:7 Noah's house was saved by God's free gift of grace, but to procure that free gift, God required Noah to conditionally build an ark. Noah's obedience in working to build the ark therefore did not earn God's grace but a necessary condition God put upon His gift of grace.