Biblical Foreknowledge

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Anthony D'Arienzo

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From A.W.Pink;

When that term is used in connection with God, it often signifies to regard with favor , denoting not mere cognition but an affection for the object in view. “I know thee by name” ( Exo.33:17). “Ye have been rebellious against the Lord from the day that I knew you” ( Deut. 9:24). “Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee” ( Jer. 1:5). “They have made princes and I knew it not ”( Hosea 8:4). “You only have I known of all the families of the earth” ( Amos 3:2).

In these passages knew signifies either loved or appointed .

In like manner, the word “know” is frequently used in the New Testament, in the same sense as in the Old Testament. “Then will I profess unto them, I never knew you” ( Matt. 7:23). “I am the good shepherd and know My sheep and am known of Mine” ( John 10:14). “If any man love God, the same is known of Him” ( 1 Cor. 8:3). “The Lord knoweth them that are His” ( 2 Tim. 2:19).

Now the word “foreknowledge” as it is used in the New Testament is less ambiguous than in its simple form “to know.” If every passage in which it occurs is carefully studied, it will be discovered that it is a moot point whether it ever has reference to the mere perception of events which are yet to take place. The fact is that “foreknowledge” is never used in Scripture in connection with events or actions; instead, it always has reference to persons . It is persons God is said to “foreknow,” not the actions of those persons. In proof of this we shall now quote each passage where this expression is found.

The first occurrence is in Acts 2:23. There we read, “Him being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain.” If careful attention is paid to the wording of this verse it will be seen that the apostle was not there speaking of God’s foreknowledge of the act of the crucifixion, but of the Personcrucified: “Him (Christ) being delivered by,” etc.

The second occurrence is in Romans 8;29,30. “For whom He did foreknow, He also did predestinate to be conformed to the image, of His Son, that He might be the Firstborn among many brethren. Moreover whom He did predestinate, them He also called,” etc.

Weigh well the pronoun that is used here. It is not what He did foreknow, but whom He did. It is not the surrendering of their wills nor the believing of their hearts but the persons themselves, which is here in view. “God hath not cast away His people which He foreknew” ( Rom. 11:2).

Once more the plain reference is to persons, and to persons only.

The last mention is in 1 Pet. 1:2: “Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father.” Who are elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father? The previous verse tells us: the reference is to the “strangers scattered” i.e. the Diaspora, the Dispersion, the believing Jews. Thus, here too the reference is to persons, and not to their foreseen acts.

see pt2;
 

Anthony D'Arienzo

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pt2;
Now in view of these passages (and there are no more) what scriptural ground is there for anyone saying God “foreknew” the acts of certain ones, viz., their “repenting and believing,” and that because of those acts He elected them unto salvation? The answer is, None whatever. Scripture never speaks of repentance and faith as being foreseen or foreknown by God. Truly, He didknow from all eternity that certain ones would repent and believe, yet this is not what Scripture refers to as the object of God’s “foreknowledge.” The word uniformly refers to God’s foreknowing persons ; then let us “hold fast the form of sound words” ( 2 Tim. 1:13).

Another thing to which we desire to call particular attention is that the first two passages quoted above show plainly and teach implicitly that God’s “foreknowledge” is not causative , that instead, something else lies behind, precedes it, and that something is His own sovereign decree . Christ was “delivered by the (1) determinate counsel and (2) foreknowledge of God.” ( Acts 2:23).

His “counsel” or decree was the ground of His foreknowledge. So again in Rom.8:29. That verse opens with the word “for,” which tells us to look back to what immediately precedes. What, then, does the previous verse say? This, “all things worktogether for good to them...who are the called according to His purpose.” Thus God’s foreknowledge is based upon His purpose or decree (see Psa.2:7).

God foreknows what will be because He has decreed what shall be . It is therefore a reversing of the order of Scripture, a putting of the cart before the horse, to affirm that God elects because He foreknows people. The truth is, He “foreknows” because He has elected . This removes the ground or cause of election from outside the creature, and places it in God’s own sovereign will. God purposed in Himself to elect a certain people, not because of anything good in them or from them, either actual or foreseen, but solely out of His own mere pleasure. As to why He chose the ones He did, we do not know, and can only say, “Even so, Father, for so it seemed good in Thy sight.” The plain truth of Rom. 8:29 is that God, before the foundation of the world, singled out certain sinners and appointed them unto salvation ( 2 Thess. 2:13). This is clear from the concluding words of the verse: “Predestinated to be conformed to the image of His Son,” etc. God did not predestinate those whom He foreknew were “conformed,” but, on the contrary, those whom He “foreknew” (i.e., loved and elected) He predestinated to be conformed. Their conformity to Christ is not the cause, but the effect of God’s foreknowledge and predestination.

God did not elect any sinner because He foresaw that he would believe, for the simple but sufficient reason that no sinner ever does believe until God gives him faith; just as no man sees until God gives him sight. Sight is God’s gift, seeing is the consequence of my using His gift. So faith is God’s gift ( Eph. 1:8,9), believing is the consequence of my using His gift. If it were true that God had elected certain ones to be saved because in due time they would believe, then that would make believing a meritorious act, and in that event the saved sinner would have ground for “boasting,” which Scripture emphatically denies: Eph.2:9.
 

Anthony D'Arienzo

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Once more the plain reference is to persons, and to persons only.

The last mention is in 1 Peter 1:2: “Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father.” Who are elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father? The previous verse tells us: the reference is to the “strangers scattered” i.e. the Diaspora, the Dispersion, the believing Jews. Thus, here too the reference is to persons, and not to their foreseen acts.

Now in view of these passages (and there are no more) what scriptural ground is there for anyone saying God “foreknew” the acts of certain ones, viz., their “repenting and believing,” and that because of those acts He elected them unto salvation? The answer is, None whatever. Scripture never speaks of repentance and faith as being foreseen or foreknown by God. Truly, He didknow from all eternity that certain ones would repent and believe, yet this is not what Scripture refers to as the object of God’s “foreknowledge.” The word uniformly refers to God’s foreknowing persons ; then let us “hold fast the form of sound words” ( 2 Timothy 1:13).

Another thing to which we desire to call particular attention is that the first two passages quoted above show plainly and teach implicitly that God’s “foreknowledge” is not causative , that instead, something else lies behind, precedes it, and that something is His own sovereign decree . Christ was “delivered by the (1) determinate counsel and (2) foreknowledge of God.” ( Acts 2:23).

His “counsel” or decree was the ground of His foreknowledge. So again in Romans 8:29. That verse opens with the word “for,” which tells us to look back to what immediately precedes. What, then, does the previous verse say? This, “all things worktogether for good to them...who are the called according to His purpose.” Thus God’s foreknowledge is based upon His purpose or decree (see Psalm 2:7).

God foreknows what will be because He has decreed what shall be . It is therefore a reversing of the order of Scripture, a putting of the cart before the horse, to affirm that God elects because He foreknows people. The truth is, He “foreknows” because He has elected . This removes the ground or cause of election from outside the creature, and places it in God’s own sovereign will. God purposed in Himself to elect a certain people, not because of anything good in them or from them, either actual or foreseen, but solely out of His own mere pleasure. As to why He chose the ones He did, we do not know, and can only say, “Even so, Father, for so it seemed good in Thy sight.” The plain truth of Romans 8:29 is that God, before the foundation of the world, singled out certain sinners and appointed them unto salvation ( 2 Thessalonians 2:13). This is clear from the concluding words of the verse: “Predestinated to be conformed to the image of His Son,” etc. God did not predestinate those whom He foreknew were “conformed,” but, on the contrary, those whom He “foreknew” (i.e., loved and elected) He predestinated to be conformed. Their conformity to Christ is not the cause, but the effect of God’s foreknowledge and predestination.

God did not elect any sinner because He foresaw that he would believe, for the simple but sufficient reason that no sinner ever does believe until God gives him faith; just as no man sees until God gives him sight. Sight is God’s gift, seeing is the consequence of my using His gift. So faith is God’s gift ( Ephesians 1:8,9), believing is the consequence of my using His gift. If it were true that God had elected certain ones to be saved because in due time they would believe, then that would make believing a meritorious act, and in that event the saved sinner would have ground for “boasting,” which Scripture emphatically denies: Ephesians 2:9.

 

Enoch111

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From A.W.Pink
We know that A.W. Pink was a committed Calvinist. So he would be bound to present the Calvinistic idea of divine foreknowledge. But actually Romans 8:29, 30 as well as 1 Peter 1:2 REFUTE Calvinisitic foreknowledge.

Since God elects no one for either salvation or damnation, He elects BELIEVERS through divine foreknowledge for the purpose of being perfected (body, soul, and spirit). And that is the same as being "conformed to the image of His Son".

Arthur Pink was a very good Bible scholar, but he ruined his position by going along with the Five Points of Calvinism. Thus he denies what is Bible truth: 'He did know from all eternity that certain ones would repent and believe, yet this is not what Scripture refers to as the object of God’s “foreknowledge.”'
 

Anthony D'Arienzo

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We know that A.W. Pink was a committed Calvinist. So he would be bound to present the Calvinistic idea of divine foreknowledge. But actually Romans 8:29, 30 as well as 1 Peter 1:2 REFUTE Calvinisitic foreknowledge.

Since God elects no one for either salvation or damnation, He elects BELIEVERS through divine foreknowledge for the purpose of being perfected (body, soul, and spirit). And that is the same as being "conformed to the image of His Son".

Arthur Pink was a very good Bible scholar, but he ruined his position by going along with the Five Points of Calvinism. Thus he denies what is Bible truth: 'He did know from all eternity that certain ones would repent and believe, yet this is not what Scripture refers to as the object of God’s “foreknowledge.”'

You say that based on nothing.
refute anything in Pinks article, go line by line and try your best.
Pink was a Calvinist because he believed the biblical teaching.
 
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Enoch111

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You say that based on nothing.
I do not say that "based on nothing". The Bible is crystal clear that God offers salvation TO ALL MANKIND and that Christ died for the sins OF THE WHOLE WORLD. That is sufficient to refute the notion that God elects some for salvation and others for damnation. Just one Bible verse should suffice.

Look unto me, and be ye saved, all the ends of the earth: for I am God, and there is none else. (Isaiah 45:22).
 

Anthony D'Arienzo

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I do not say that "based on nothing". The Bible is crystal clear that God offers salvation TO ALL MANKIND and that Christ died for the sins OF THE WHOLE WORLD. That is sufficient to refute the notion that God elects some for salvation and others for damnation. Just one Bible verse should suffice.

Look unto me, and be ye saved, all the ends of the earth: for I am God, and there is none else. (Isaiah 45:22).
You cannot refute anything Pink taught, so you seek to dismiss it with a random verse???
This shallow attempt shows you cannot handle any solid teaching.
Can you not see how now you seek to avoid truth? This is the third time you show you have nothing on these issues.
 
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Enoch111

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This shallow attempt shows you cannot handle any solid teaching.
You honestly believe that IT IS SHALLOW to present the true Gospel -- that God offers salvation to anyone and everyone, since Christ died for the sins of the whole world?

This is the Good News which the whole world needs. That none are excluded, that all are invited, that all may become children of God by the grace of God and through faith in Christ, that all may have eternal life through Christ and His finished work of redemption. Indeed, God commands all men everywhere to repent and to believe on the Lord Jesus Christ. Is that shallow, or are you so shallow that you do not really believe God?

Arthur Pink has already been refuted by Christ in John 3:16,17:
For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.
 
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Philip James

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Thus God’s foreknowledge is based upon His purpose or decree

First of all, then, I ask that supplications, prayers, petitions, and thanksgivings be offered for everyone,

for kings and for all in authority, that we may lead a quiet and tranquil life in all devotion and dignity.

This is good and pleasing to God our savior,

who wills everyone to be saved and to come to knowledge of the truth.


Peace be with you!
 

Anthony D'Arienzo

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You honestly believe that IT IS SHALLOW to present the true Gospel -- that God offers salvation to anyone and everyone, since Christ died for the sins of the whole world?

This is the Good News which the whole world needs. That none are excluded, that all are invited, that all may become children of God by the grace of God and through faith in Christ, that all may have eternal life through Christ and His finished work of redemption. Indeed, God commands all men everywhere to repent and to believe on the Lord Jesus Christ. Is that shallow, or are you so shallow that you do not really believe God?

Arthur Pink has already been refuted by Christ in John 3:16,17:
For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved.
Again you fail to address the article at all.
Your version of the gospel is not according to scripture.
Address the article line by line, or go home
 
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Anthony D'Arienzo

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First of all, then, I ask that supplications, prayers, petitions, and thanksgivings be offered for everyone,

for kings and for all in authority, that we may lead a quiet and tranquil life in all devotion and dignity.

This is good and pleasing to God our savior,

who wills everyone to be saved and to come to knowledge of the truth.


Peace be with you!
Good verse. Is everyone going to be saved?
In the biblical view everyone spoken of will be saved,kings,. Those in authority, jews, gentiles
 
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marks

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Weigh well the pronoun that is used here. It is not what He did foreknow, but whom He did.

It seems to me that the whole argument really turns on this point. He foreknew . . . not facts . . . people He set out to know. And these surrounding arguments seem to me to be supporting this point.

Do I understand this correctly?

This is Pink's view, and your's also?

Much love!

PS . . . as far as going "line by line" through his article, firstly, I don't debate with those who are not present, and secondly, having done that work before, I know what a chore it is, nuf said.
 
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GodsGrace

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You cannot refute anything Pink taught, so you seek to dismiss it with a random verse???
This shallow attempt shows you cannot handle any solid teaching.
Can you not see how now you seek to avoid truth? This is the third time you show you have nothing on these issues.
What exactly are you expecting?
A three page reply?

Pick a verse and we'll discuss it.
 

GodsGrace

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Read Acts 7:51: Ye stiffnecked and uncircumcised in heart and ears, ye do always resist the Holy Ghost: as your fathers did, so do ye.

Hope this tells you that so-called Calvinistic "Irresistible Grace" is a fake doctrine.
Very good E.
Seems like GOD HIMSELF makes us resist the Holy Ghost...
when the verse you posted show FREE WILL.
Libertarian free will.
 
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Ernest T. Bass

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From the OP " The fact is that “foreknowledge” is never used in Scripture in connection with events or actions; instead, it always has reference to persons . It is persons God is said to “foreknow,” not the actions of those persons."


I did not see in the OP where it was proven that God only foreknows persons but does not foreknow things, events or actions.

In Isaiah, in dealing with false gods, God proves He is the only one true God...(Isaiah 44:7-8)

KJV "And who, as I, shall call, and shall declare it, and set it in order for me, since I appointed the ancient people? and the things that are coming, and shall come, let them shew unto them."

NKJV "And who can proclaim as I do? Then let him declare it and set it in order for Me, Since I appointed the ancient people. And the things that are coming and shall come, Let them show these to them."

ASV "And who, as I, shall call, and shall declare it, and set it in order for me, since I established the ancient people? and the things that are coming, and that shall come to pass, let them declare."

NASB "Who is like Me? Let him proclaim and declare it; Yes, let him recount it to Me in order, From the time that I established the ancient nation. And let them declare to them the things that are coming And the events that are going to take place."
 

GodsGrace

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Good verse. Is everyone going to be saved?
In the biblical view everyone spoken of will be saved,kings,. Those in authority, jews, gentiles
No AD.
There are only TWO CATEGORIES of persons in the entire bible.

Those that are saved....
and those that ARE NOT.

It doesn't matter if they're Kings, Queens, Policemen, soldiers, Italians, Jews, etc.

God wills,,,
God WANTS that all should be saved.

But, alas, we have to adhere to His conditions...which are WELL KNOWN.
We have to be born from above and accept Jesus as our Lord and Savior.

Accept,,,,means that something is OFFERED to you...
and you ACCEPT it.

Romans 10:9-10
........that is, the word of faith which we are preaching,
9that if you confess with your mouth Jesus as Lord, and believe in your heart that God raised Him from the dead, you will be saved;
10for with the heart a person believes, resulting in righteousness, and with the mouth he confesses, resulting in salvation.

God offers everyone the gift....
John 3:16

Then it's up to the person whether or not they want the gift.

This is known as free will.
Libertarian free will.