Why do so many oppose imputed righteousness?

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BARNEY BRIGHT

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Justbyfaith said:
Actually, those who remain on the earth after these have been robed in white will all be condemned
If you mean there will be no righteous people on Earth during the time period of the scriptures you quoted in Revelation 13:16; Revelation 14:9-11, I disagree. Jesus did say his second presence who be like the days of Noah. There were Righteous people on Earth during the Flood, The True God Jehovah kept them safe while on Earth. HE kept them safe in an Ark yes, but they were still on Earth during that destruction. Just as The True God kept those people safe during that destruction that was going on all around them, HE will keep the righteous safe during The War of God Almighty.
 

Stranger

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----Yes I certainly, whole heartedly do reject Martin Luther's philosophy of salvation by faith alone and accept the Bible's teaching of salvation by an obedient faith.

----I have never said one can earn salvation by works. I have said, as the Bible shows, that salvation is a free gift that comes with condition of obedient faith. And meeting a condition upon a free gift does not, cannot earn the free gift.

---the idea that righteousness or unrighteousness is transferred from one person to another is of Calvinism not the NT gospel.


Per your question to me:

Christ died for all men, Hebrews 2:9 He tasted death for every man. Since Christ died for all men and therefore God's grace has appeared to all men (Titus 2:11) then why are not all men saved? Because all men will not CONDTIONALLY obey Christ, (Hebrews 5:9). Again,salvation/God's grace are CONDITIONAL free gifts and one must meet the condition (0beeience to Christ) in order to receive the free gift. The Bible is fill of examples of those who obeyed God and not a single time does it say their obedience earned them brownie points with God, that their obedience earn them salvation/grace.

Well, yes, I know Christ died for all men. But that works only in God's plan of imputation. By one man we were made sinners. Thus by One Man we can be redeemed. (Rom. 5:12-21)

But you reject both the imputation of sin with Adam and the imputation of righteousness with Christ. Thus you must tell me now, who did Christ die for? The only way One can die for all, is through imputation.

Now what will you do? Roll the dice. Who is the lucky one for whom Christ died, under your plan?

Stranger
 

Stranger

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That scripture does not exactly say that we are all sinners; but that we all "have sin". Sin can be rendered dead so that we do not sin; thus we would not be sinners in the sense of being people who generally sin.



By impartation also. 1 John 3:7 speaks of a righteousness that we do, that is even as He is righteous.



I agree with you, that righteousness is imputed to us regardless of our sins. However, this does not mean that righteousness will not also be imparted for those who desire it.

In your dreams. You are a sinner because you are infected with sin. Even if you for a very small time, don't commit a sin, you are still a sinner. You deceive yourself. You are eat up with sin like everyone else.

Your go to verse, (1 John 3:7), does not teach any 'impartation of righteousness'. That is a made up doctrine by you. There is being declared righteous. There is having righteousness imputed to you. But there is no 'impartation' of righteousness.

You want 'impartation' because you believe you can place men under the law with it. You must maintain that righteousness. How foolish, and silly. You make the imputation of Christ a law.

Stranger
 

BARNEY BRIGHT

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Justbyfaith said:
The Bible tells us that the Word was God; and that He became a Man.
I understand that there are those that believe that, I simply disagree with you. John 1:1- In the] beginning+ the Word*+ was, and the Word was with God,*+ (Literally “was toward the God.” Gr., en pros ton The·onʹ; J17,18(Heb.), ha·yahʹ ʼeth ha·ʼElo·himʹ) and the Word was a god.(Greek-the·osʹ, in contrast with ton The·onʹ, “the God,” in the same sentence; J17,18(Heb.), weʼ·lo·himʹ, “and god.”) I honestly believe what these Greek and Hebrew manuscripts say is that, The Word which is God's son was with God in the beginning or toward God which the Greek manuscripts say literally, then the last part of the verse in Greek doesn't say, " ton theon" which is translated, "The God", but instead says in Greek, "theos" which would be, I believe translated, "a god".

The context lays the groundwork for accurate understanding. Even the King James Version says, “The Word was with God.” Someone who is “with” another person cannot be the same as that other person. In agreement with this, the Journal of Biblical Literature, edited by Jesuit Joseph A. Fitzmyer, notes that if the latter part of John 1:1 were interpreted to mean “the” God, this “would then contradict the preceding clause,” which says that the Word was with God.(greek- ton theon)
 

justbyfaith

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In your dreams. You are a sinner because you are infected with sin.

Not just in my dreams; in real life! While sin dwells in my mortal flesh, I do not have to live according to it. I am not a sinner in that I do not want to sin and do not have to sin (see Romans 8:12-13). How then can I sin? It is not that I couldn't sin if I wanted to; but that I don't want to and don't have to sin: therefore I can't sin. What reason would there be to do so?

The element of sin dwelling within my mortal flesh is rendered dead (Galatians 5:24, Romans 6:6, Romans 7:8). Therefore it no longer has any authority over my behaviour.

If you define a sinner as someone in whom sin dwells, then I am a sinner. But if you define a sinner as someone who commits sin, if I admit that I am a sinner then I admit that I am a child of the devil (1 John 3:8).

Your go to verse, (1 John 3:7), does not teach any 'impartation of righteousness'. That is a made up doctrine by you.

It does indeed speak of impartation; for doing is in the equation. Also, 1 John 3:7 is not the only verse I am quoting: I am also referencing Romans 5:19 and Matthew 5:6.

There is being declared righteous. There is having righteousness imputed to you. But there is no 'impartation' of righteousness.

Oh yes there is...Matthew 5:6, Romans 5:19, 1 John 3:7.

You want 'impartation' because you believe you can place men under the law with it. You must maintain that righteousness. How foolish, and silly. You make the imputation of Christ a law.

I am not trying to place anyone under the law. The only way to freedom is to be delivered from the law. But I am using the law as a schoolmaster to lead men to Christ. And it is also true that those who are under the new covenant have the law written on our hearts and in our minds (Hebrews 8:8-10, Hebrews 10:16). But this does not mean that the law any longer condemns the believer in Christ. We are governed by it; but never condemned by it. Jesus is the Lord of us so we obey His commandments because we love Him, not in order to obtain salvation. Salvation produces the obedience to God that is exemplified in the law.


@BARNEY BRIGHT said:
Even the King James Version says, “The Word was with God.” Someone who is “with” another person cannot be the same as that other person.

They can; for 1 x 1 x 1 = 1.

In my view, the Father became/becomes/will become the Son. For the son that was given shall have the name of the everlasting Father, among other things.

The Father could not vacate eternity when He becomes the Son; for He who dwells in eternity will always be in eternity (Isaiah 57:15).

He descended, died on the Cross, and then ascended to fill all things (Ephesians 4:10).

Thus He exists beside Himself.

This doesn't mean He is crazy.
 
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Stranger

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Not just in my dreams; in real life! While sin dwells in my mortal flesh, I do not have to live according to it. I am not a sinner in that I do not want to sin and do not have to sin (see Romans 8:12-13). How then can I sin? It is not that I couldn't sin if I wanted to; but that I don't want to and don't have to sin: therefore I can't sin. What reason would there be to do so?

The element of sin dwelling within my mortal flesh is rendered dead (Galatians 5:24, Romans 6:6, Romans 7:8). Therefore it no longer has any authority over my behaviour.

If you define a sinner as someone in whom sin dwells, then I am a sinner. But if you define a sinner as someone who commits sin, if I admit that I am a sinner then I admit that I am a child of the devil (1 John 3:8).



It does indeed speak of impartation; for doing is in the equation. Also, 1 John 3:7 is not the only verse I am quoting: I am also referencing Romans 5:19 and Matthew 5:6.



Oh yes there is...Matthew 5:6, Romans 5:19, 1 John 3:7.



I am not trying to place anyone under the law. The only way to freedom is to be delivered from the law. But I am using the law as a schoolmaster to lead men to Christ. And it is also true that those who are under the new covenant have the law written on our hearts and in our minds (Hebrews 8:8-10, Hebrews 10:16). But this does not mean that the law any longer condemns the believer in Christ. We are governed by it; but never condemned by it. Jesus is the Lord of us so we obey His commandments because we love Him, not in order to obtain salvation. Salvation produces the obedience to God that is exemplified in the law.

A sinner is one in whom sin dwells. That is everyone. Because sin dwells in everyone, everyone sins. Making you a sinner. You may not be slave to it, you may walk in fellowship with God, but you are still a sinner. And you still sin. Be encouraged, Christ has made provision for you. (1 John 9-10)

No, there is no impartation of righteousness. There is the imputation of righteousness. What a perversion. And, yes, (1 John 3:7) is your go to verse for this twisted doctrine. Which I have explained before your error in the use of it. Concerning (Rom. 5:19), that is imputed righteousness. Concerning (Matt. 5:6), those that desire righteousness shall obtain it...by imputation only. Not by doing. That was the error of the pharisee. (Matt. 5:20)

Your doctrine of 'impartation' is nothing but law. You have turned the doctrine of imputation, which is solely based on the grace of God, into a legalism, whereby the believer must maintain that righteousness. As if he could. The doctrine of imputation is against your bent towards legalism. Thus your need to invent this doctrine of 'impartation'.

Stranger
 

justbyfaith

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Because sin dwells in everyone, everyone sins.

Not necessarily. For sin can be rendered dead within us (Galatians 5:24, Romans 6:6, Romans 7:8). Thus it has no more authority over what I do; and I am enabled to walk in freedom from and victory over sin.

Making you a sinner.

Not in the sense that sinning is inevitable in my life (see 1 John 3:6, 1 John 2:17, 1 John 3:9)

A sinner is one in whom sin dwells. That is everyone.

I'll agree that all are sinners according to that definition; and that according to that definition, I myself am the chief of sinners.

You may not be slave to it, you may walk in fellowship with God, but you are still a sinner. And you still sin. Be encouraged, Christ has made provision for you. (1 John 9-10)

I know. He has not only forgiven me of past, present, and future sin(s) through His blood; but He has also enabled me to abide in Him (John 15:1-8, 1 John 3:6, 1 John 2:17). Which means that it does not necessarily be that I must still sin.

No, there is no impartation of righteousness.

We will have to agree to disagree.

Your doctrine of 'impartation' is nothing but law.

No, it is based completely in the grace of the Lord. We receive the Holy Spirit through faith (Galatians 3:14). The love of God is shed abroad in our hearts through the Holy Ghost (Romans 5:5). And this love is the fulfilling of the righteousness of the law within me (Romans 13:8-10, Galatians 5:14, 1 John 5:3, 2 John 1:6, Romans 8:4) and the bond of perfectness (Colossians 3:14, Hebrews 10:14). It is also not in word or in tongue only; but in deed and in truth (1 John 3:17-18). Thus faith without works is dead; while our salvation (the receiving of God's love through which we accomplish good works) is through faith in Jesus Christ alone, and not by works of righteousness which we have done (Titus 3:5).

You have turned the doctrine of imputation, which is solely based on the grace of God, into a legalism, whereby the believer must maintain that righteousness. As if he could.

We cannot maintain our own righteousness except by faith...and that makes it not our own righteousness except in that it has been given to us and we own it now. Our righteousness with the Lord is by faith from beginning to end and all the way through (Romans 1:17, Colossians 2:6, Galatians 3:1-3). So then, we are kept by the power of the Lord through faith unto salvation ready to be revealed in the last time (1 Peter 1:5). He that endureth to the end shall be saved (Matthew 10:22, Matthew 24:13, Hebrews 3:6, Hebrews 3:14).

The doctrine of imputation is against your bent towards legalism. Thus your need to invent this doctrine of 'impartation'.

I have no bent towards legalism. I know that I am saved completely through the grace of God.

While grace is not defined only as "unmerited favour" but also as "the enabling power of the Lord", "Goodness Rendered As Christ Empowers", "God's Riches At Christ's Expense", and as, "Getting what we don't deserve: heaven (as opposed to mercy, which is not getting what we do deserve: hell)".

The wages of sin is death (Romans 6:23, Romans 8:13, James 1:15-16); and there is no reason to believe that these verses are not speaking of spiritual death (eternal separation from the Lord).

I also am not against the doctrine of imputation. I hold to it dearly without denying its accompanying doctrine (impartation).

I know that God counts me as righteous because of my faith.

He counts you as righteous because of your faith. That is your identity in Christ regardless of whether you sin; as long as you continue to have faith in Jesus. And this makes your righteousness in Christ to be unshakable. Because for the one who truly has a heart faith in Jesus Christ (see Romans 10:10), faith is eternal/everlasting (see John 6:47).

So now, go and live like your identity would lead you to live. For you are the righteousness of the Lord in Christ (2 Corinthians 5:21).

Righteousness is not only positional; it is practical (1 John 3:7, Romans 5:19, Matthew 5:6).

Anyone with eyes to see and who has a logical mind; who does not have sin to hide and hold on to: will realize that these verses speak of a practical and imparted righteousness.
 
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justbyfaith

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You have turned the doctrine of imputation, which is solely based on the grace of God, into a legalism, whereby the believer must maintain that righteousness. As if he could.

Rom 11:22, Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off.
 

justbyfaith

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That is your identity in Christ regardless of whether you sin; as long as you continue to have faith in Jesus.
Sin itself is deceitful and can have the effect of destroying a person's faith if it is not dealt with.

Heb 3:7, Wherefore (as the Holy Ghost saith, To day if ye will hear his voice,
Heb 3:8, Harden not your hearts, as in the provocation, in the day of temptation in the wilderness:
Heb 3:9, When your fathers tempted me, proved me, and saw my works forty years.
Heb 3:10, Wherefore I was grieved with that generation, and said, They do alway err in their heart; and they have not known my ways.
Heb 3:11, So I sware in my wrath, They shall not enter into my rest.)
Heb 3:12, Take heed, brethren, lest there be in any of you an evil heart of unbelief, in departing from the living God.
Heb 3:13, But exhort one another daily, while it is called To day; lest any of you be hardened through the deceitfulness of sin.
Heb 3:14, For we are made partakers of Christ, if we hold the beginning of our confidence stedfast unto the end;
 

justbyfaith

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I know that I have a vile body (Philippians 3:21); however I know also that I have the power through the Spirit to put to death the deeds of my body (Romans 8:12-13); so that I do not ever have to commit sin again in my life.

If you have ever come to the place of crying out with Paul what he wrote in Romans 7:24, then you see this as good news.

There are two types of Romans 7:14-25 Christian: the saved and the unsaved. The saved cry out with Paul what he wrote in Romans 7:24, they are discontented with living a sinful lifestyle.

The unsaved use Romans 7:14-25 as an excuse to keep on sinning as if that is the normal Christian life and nothing can be done about it.

Romans 8 was written to show that we can graduate out of a Romans 7:14-25 lifestyle into a life of victory and freedom.

Not to mention that fact that Romans 6, which precedes it, shows clearly that we can be set free from the power of sin.
 
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Ernest T. Bass

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No it doesn't.

His statement is expressing the point that works based salvation has you losing that salvation for a single forgotten sin. Does God overlook sin? Even one? If we have to have the works to be saved, then who will be saved?

But what does that have to do with some kind of carefree attitude to sin?

Perhaps you can clarify that.

Much love!
No one will carry one sin into heaven with them, not even a forgotten sin. That is why the Christian must have a continued repentance, (walking in the light - 1 Jn 1:7). so ALL sins will be forgiven/washed away. IF the Christian is not going to do the obedient work of walking in the light then NONE of his sins will be cleansed away by the blood of Christ.

If God would allow ONE forgotten sin into heaven, then why not allow 1000's of known sins into heaven too? Why not live in adultery all one's life and still go to heaven?
 

Ernest T. Bass

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In Romans 10:3, God's righteousness that is to be submitted to is the righteousness of faith (see Philippians 3:9); not the righteousness of the law.

THose Jews were lost for they did not obey, submit to God's righteous commands. Therefore obedience is necessary to being saved and not works of the OT law or works of merit.


justbyfaith said:
However, Romans 4:6 tells us that we can be saved and justified by faith "apart from works".

The works refer to the perfect flawless works required by the OT law not a faithful obedience. Paul never eliminated faithul obedience from being saved but required in Romans 6:17-18.

Again, how could Abraham be one who "worketh not" (Rom 4) when in fact he did do works (Hebrews 11:8,17)? THis is not a contradiction for when Abraham worketh not he did not work to keep the OT law flawlessly to be justified be he did do obedient works in doing God's will to be justified.


[quote-justbyfaith]
How about Aaron the saint of the LORD (Psalms 106:16)? I suppose that you think he did not do unrighteousness when he created the golden calf.[/quote]

Idolatry is unrighteousness


justbyfaith said:
What one does depends on what one is.



What one does (righteousness or unrighteousness) depends on what one is (righteous by faith, or unrighteous).



I agree that mental assent will never cut it. it must be a heart faith that is unto real righteousness (Romans 10:10).



Actually, there is a powerful example of this in the OT; wherein a man is to lay his hands on the head of the animal before killing it for his atonement. The picture is that he is transferring his sins to the animal.



Original sin is sound doctrine. Of course, it is not that we are punishes for Adam's sin; but that rather we inherited the sin nature from Adam and we commit our own sins as the result: for which we will be judged by God.



Yes.



Rom 4:5, But to him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.



Yes, repentance is important. Yet if there is human weakness and the person remains ungodly because of it, their faith is still counted to them for righteousness. They do not have to work for their righteousness but it is imputed to them through faith.



It does.



Why would anyone who is truly redeemed, born again, and sealed by the Holy Spirit cease to walk in the light?



The Christian being spoken of is one who previously had a lukewarm, nominal, or shallow faith (mere mental assent to the tenets of the gospel). Such people cannot avail themselves of such promises in scripture as John 5:24, John 6:47, and John 10:27-30.



It is biblical doctrine.



Hebrews 5:9 speaks of the fact that living faith in Jesus Christ produces an obedient heart. It does not change the biblical fact of salvation by faith alone in Jesus Christ alone.

All that is required is a living faith in Jesus Christ.



Now you changed your belief from salvation by an obedient faith to salvation by obedience.

Obedience does not save anyone (Ephesians 2:9). However the faith that saves is necessarily an obedient faith. We do not receive Jesus Christ as Saviour only but also as Lord.

One is not first righteous then goes about doing righteousness. There is not example of a person who was seen as righteous BEFORE they ever did any righteousness. Again Romans 9:11 both twins had done neither good or evil meaning they were born neutral, born a blank slate so to speak. Therefore how can they be unrighteous when they had done no evil? Impossible. To call them unrighteous BEFORE they had done any evil is like calling a wall painted BEFORE any paint has been put on it. God has never declared any person as righteous BEFORE that person had ever done any righteousness.

There is no verse at all that says righteousness or unrighteousness is transferred from one person to another. There is no such thing as a righteous or unrighteous gene that is passed from one to another. Righteousness or unrighteousness is not a substance as bacteria that is passed from one to another. Righteousness or unrighteousness is not an abstract idea that is passed from one person to another. The only way a person can be righteous is by doing righteousness. Puting it the other way around creates a logical, Biblical impossibility.

If we can transfer our sins into an animal then there was no reason for Christ to died and shed His blood to wash away our sins.

My position, as found in the Bible that salvation is by obedience to God's will, nothing has changed. God saves, but who does He save and why? The obedient (Hebrews 5:9). Therefore a faith that justifies (Romans 5:1) is a faith that obeys. Faith only is void of obedience for is is just a mental assent of the mind, just simple acknowledge of some Biblical information and nothing more.

You post "I agree that mental assent will never cut it." But that all faith only is, a mental assent of the mind and that is why James says faith only is dead. Just having a mental assent that a hungry person will be fed with DOING anything is dead faith.
 

Ernest T. Bass

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Well, yes, I know Christ died for all men. But that works only in God's plan of imputation. By one man we were made sinners. Thus by One Man we can be redeemed. (Rom. 5:12-21)

But you reject both the imputation of sin with Adam and the imputation of righteousness with Christ. Thus you must tell me now, who did Christ die for? The only way One can die for all, is through imputation.

Now what will you do? Roll the dice. Who is the lucky one for whom Christ died, under your plan?

Stranger

The only dice to be rolled is found in Calvinism as to whom was lucky enough to be chosen to be saved before the foundation of the world. Yet the Bible teaches Christ died for all men thereby giving an avenue to salvation for all men. Yet only those men who obey (Hebrews 5:9) and take that path to salvation will be the ones to be saved. There is no rolling the dice in obeying God....just do it.
 

marks

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No one will carry one sin into heaven with them, not even a forgotten sin. That is why the Christian must have a continued repentance, (walking in the light - 1 Jn 1:7). so ALL sins will be forgiven/washed away. IF the Christian is not going to do the obedient work of walking in the light then NONE of his sins will be cleansed away by the blood of Christ.

If God would allow ONE forgotten sin into heaven, then why not allow 1000's of known sins into heaven too? Why not live in adultery all one's life and still go to heaven?
I don't really understand what you are saying here.

Certainly there is no sin in heaven.

If we confess our sin, he is faithful and just to forgive, and cleanse. Are you not forgiven? Are you not cleansed? Will not the earth be made new, with only righteousness? Will not our bodies be made new, without the stain or desire for sin? Are you not made new in the inner man, righteous and holy?

Why would there be sin in heaven?

Why not live in adultery all one's life

Why would you want to do that?

Much love!
 

Stranger

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We cannot maintain our own righteousness except by faith...and that makes it not our own righteousness except in that it has been given to us and we own it now. Our righteousness with the Lord is by faith from beginning to end and all the way through (Romans 1:17, Colossians 2:6, Galatians 3:1-3). So then, we are kept by the power of the Lord through faith unto salvation ready to be revealed in the last time (1 Peter 1:5). He that endureth to the end shall be saved (Matthew 10:22, Matthew 24:13, Hebrews 3:6, Hebrews 3:14).



I have no bent towards legalism. I know that I am saved completely through the grace of God.

While grace is not defined only as "unmerited favour" but also as "the enabling power of the Lord", "Goodness Rendered As Christ Empowers", "God's Riches At Christ's Expense", and as, "Getting what we don't deserve: heaven (as opposed to mercy, which is not getting what we do deserve: hell)".

The wages of sin is death (Romans 6:23, Romans 8:13, James 1:15-16); and there is no reason to believe that these verses are not speaking of spiritual death (eternal separation from the Lord).

I also am not against the doctrine of imputation. I hold to it dearly without denying its accompanying doctrine (impartation).

I know that God counts me as righteous because of my faith.

He counts you as righteous because of your faith. That is your identity in Christ regardless of whether you sin; as long as you continue to have faith in Jesus. And this makes your righteousness in Christ to be unshakable. Because for the one who truly has a heart faith in Jesus Christ (see Romans 10:10), faith is eternal/everlasting (see John 6:47).

So now, go and live like your identity would lead you to live. For you are the righteousness of the Lord in Christ (2 Corinthians 5:21).

Righteousness is not only positional; it is practical (1 John 3:7, Romans 5:19, Matthew 5:6).

Anyone with eyes to see and who has a logical mind; who does not have sin to hide and hold on to: will realize that these verses speak of a practical and imparted righteousness.

Nice speech. Plenty of smoke. You say you are not against the doctrine of imputation, but you are. You are not against it as long as you add your 'impartation' to it. The doctrine of imputation is very practical because it works. But it works only the way God has set it up. Not the way you are trying to set it up. With you it becomes nothing but law.

Whose obedience is required to make one righteous? (Rom. 5:19), one of your favorite verses. "by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous." Imputation

(Rom. 4:8) "Blessed is the man to whom the Lord will not impute sin." Doesn't mean you are not a sinner. Means the Lord does not impute it to you.

Again I ask, will the imputation of Christ's righteousness still be necessary for you in Heaven? You will be sinless there. No danger of sinning there. My how your righteousness will glow. Will Christ's imputed righteousness still be necessary for you? Why?

Stranger
 
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Stranger

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Rom 11:22, Behold therefore the goodness and severity of God: on them which fell, severity; but toward thee, goodness, if thou continue in his goodness: otherwise thou also shalt be cut off.

So? We are talking about the doctrine of imputation. This verse speaks to Gentiles as opposed to Israel. The door being opened to the Gentiles at this time but will one day close and be opened to Israel. It has nothing to do with imputation.

Stranger
 

Stranger

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The only dice to be rolled is found in Calvinism as to whom was lucky enough to be chosen to be saved before the foundation of the world. Yet the Bible teaches Christ died for all men thereby giving an avenue to salvation for all men. Yet only those men who obey (Hebrews 5:9) and take that path to salvation will be the ones to be saved. There is no rolling the dice in obeying God....just do it.

According to you Christ cannot have died for all. You're not paying attention. Unless God works through the process of imputation, then you are left with a one to one sinner/substitute.

God imputed Adam's sin to the human race. God imputed the sin of the human race to Christ. God imputed the righteousness of Christ to those who believe.

All that you just said means nothing because you deny the doctrine of imputation. So again, who is the lucky person for whom Christ died. Because according to you he can only offer for one man/woman.

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marks

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Oct 10, 2018
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There is no verse at all that says righteousness or unrighteousness is transferred from one person to another. There is no such thing as a righteous or unrighteous gene that is passed from one to another. Righteousness or unrighteousness is not a substance as bacteria that is passed from one to another. Righteousness or unrighteousness is not an abstract idea that is passed from one person to another. The only way a person can be righteous is by doing righteousness. Puting it the other way around creates a logical, Biblical impossibility.

He became sin, Who knew no sin, that we may become the righteousness of God in Him.

How is it that we may become the righteousness of God in Christ? The anwswer given here is because Jesus became sin, even though He never knew sin.

This does not say that we become our own righteousness, it says we become the righteousness of God.

And it does not say that we become the righteousness of God because we do righteous works. Again, the reason is as stated. It was Jesus' finished work on the cross.

Much love!