Jesus is God in the Flesh!!

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GISMYS_7

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Jesus is God in the Flesh!!
1. John 10:30 The Father and I are one.

2. Philippians 2:5-6 You must have the same attitude that Christ Jesus had. Though he was God, he did not think of equality with God as something to cling to.

3. John 17:21 That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me.

4. John 1:18 No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known.

5. Colossians 2:9-10 For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily. and in Christ you have been brought to fullness. He is the head over every power and authority.
 

justbyfaith

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There is one Lord (Ephesians 4:5) the Father (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21). And no one can say that Jesus is the Lord except by the Holy Ghost (1 Corinthians 12:3). Jesus also is, indeed, the Lord (1 Corinthians 8:6).
 
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tigger 2

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Jesus is God in the Flesh!!
1. John 10:30 The Father and I are one.

2. Philippians 2:5-6 You must have the same attitude that Christ Jesus had. Though he was God, he did not think of equality with God as something to cling to.

3. John 17:21 That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me.

4. John 1:18 No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known.

5. Colossians 2:9-10 For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily. and in Christ you have been brought to fullness. He is the head over every power and authority.


1. Jn 10:30 The Father and I are one. [See John 17:1, 3. Then see John 17:21, 22.]

2. Philippians 2:5-6 You must have the same attitude that Christ Jesus had. Though he was God, he did not think of equality with God as something to cling [harpagmos] to.

[The New American Standard Concordance of the Bible (by trinitarians) tells us: “harpagmos; from [harpazo]; the act of seizing or the thing seized.” And, “harpazo ... to seize, catch up, snatch away.” Notice that all have to do with taking something away by force. - # 725 & #726, Holman Bible Publ., 1981.


In fact, the trinitarian The Expositor’s Greek Testament, 1967, pp. 436, 437, vol. III, tells us:


“We cannot find any passage where [harpazo] or any of its derivatives [which include harpagmos] has the sense of ‘holding in possession,’ ‘retaining’ [as preferred in many trinitarian translations of Phil. 2:6]. It seems invariably to mean ‘seize’, ‘snatch violently’. Thus it is not permissible to glide from the true sense [‘snatch violently’] into one which is totally different, ‘hold fast.’ ”


Even the very trinitarian NT Greek expert, W. E. Vine, had to admit that harpagmos is “akin to harpazo, to seize, carry off by force.” - p. 887, An Expository Dictionary of New Testament Words. Understanding this fact makes a proper translation say: "though he was in an external form (morphe) of God (or 'a god'), he did not think of equality with God as something to seize by force (harpagmos)."]


3. John 17:21 That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me. [see also 17:22]

4. John 1:18 No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known. ["who is himself God" is not present in the text used by the ASV (or KJV).]

5. Colossians 2:9-10 For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily. and in Christ you have been brought to fullness. He is the head over every power and authority.

[Having "the fulness" of someone or something means being greatly influenced by that person or thing. The New International Dictionary of New Testament Theology says:


"Just as a person can be full of pain, joy, love, and virtue, he can also be said to be filled with God ..., i.e. possessed and inspired by God." - Vol. 1, p. 734.


Surely we wouldn’t expect anyone who is "filled with" God or who receives the "fulness of" God to actually be God! Nor would we expect anyone who has the "fulness of" Christ to actually be Christ! In fact it clearly shows that he is NOT the person or thing with which he is "filled"!


At Eph. 3:19 we actually see Paul expressing the thought "that you [Ephesian Christians] may be filled with all the fulness of God" - RSV, KJV, etc. And at Eph. 4:13 we find - "until we all attain ... to the measure of the stature of the fulness of Christ" - RSV.


For exactly the same reasons that we don’t allow such figurative language to persuade us that all true Christians actually are (or may become) God or Christ, we should not let it persuade us that Christ is actually God!]

 
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BARNEY BRIGHT

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Jesus is God in the Flesh!!
1. John 10:30 The Father and I are one.

2. Philippians 2:5-6 You must have the same attitude that Christ Jesus had. Though he was God, he did not think of equality with God as something to cling to.

3. John 17:21 That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me.

4. John 1:18 No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known.

5. Colossians 2:9-10 For in him the whole fullness of deity dwells bodily. and in Christ you have been brought to fullness. He is the head over every power and authority.

#1 John 10:30 going by the context of this scripture Jesus wasn't saying he and God were the same person but instead they were united in a common purpose.

#2 Philippians 2:5-6 this scripture isn't saying that The Son of God thinks himself to be God. We have to keep scripture in the context which it is written. All this scripture is saying is that we are to be humble as The Son of God is humble who although was in God's form never snatched at any thought that he was equal to God. We are to imitate his humbleness not to think more of ourselves than we actually arr
 
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BARNEY BRIGHT

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@BARNEY BRIGHT,

What do you have to say to this:[/QUOTE\]


The apostle Paul was referring to acceptable water baptism when he wrote: “One body there is, and one spirit, even as you were called in the one hope to which you were called; one Lord, one faith, one baptism; one God and Father of all persons.”—Eph. 4:4-6.

When Paul was in Ephesus in 55 C.E. he wrote to the Christians in Corinth. One of the points he stressed was that they should not be divided, attaching themselves to leading men, including the person who baptized them in water as if they were his followers. Those who were baptized in Corinth were not baptized in the name of Paul or Apollos or Cephas; they were baptized in water in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit, as directed by Jesus.—Matt. 28:19; 1 Cor. 1:10-16.

Some five years later, or about 61 C.E., Paul wrote to his beloved spiritual brothers in Ephesus. One of the important points he stressed in this letter was unity, just as in his letter to Corinth. He showed that the division between Jew and Gentile had been abolished. Now all believers could unitedly approach Jehovah. They all could have holy spirit and form part of the spiritual temple, “a place for God to inhabit by spirit.”—Eph. 2:13-22.

Continuing this point of unity, he explained that together they constituted one spiritual body. They all received of the holy spirit. With the spirit as a token of what was to come, they had a heavenly hope. (Eph. 4:4; 1 Cor. 12:13; 2 Cor. 5:5) They had all believed on the same Lord, Jesus Christ, and they all exercised faith in the same divine provisions so as to be acceptable to God.—1 Cor. 8:6; 2 Cor. 4:13

Then, before commenting that they were united by having one God and Father, Paul mentioned that they had “one baptism.” How true that was! All who were Christians had undergone water baptism.

The majority of those who were then Christians had been baptized as disciples after Pentecost 33 C.E. Prior to that time, some, such as the apostles who traveled with Jesus, had been baptized by John the Baptist in what was then a God-ordained and acceptable baptism. These did not later need to be rebaptized. When once the Christian congregation was established on Pentecost 33 C.E., John’s baptism was no longer acceptable. Those being properly baptized from that time forward would be baptized “in the name of the Father and of the Son and of the holy spirit,” as Jesus said.—Matt. 28:19

This matter of being united by being acceptably baptized in water would have had particular meaning to those in Ephesus. It was in that city that Paul met some who had not heard of Jesus’ baptism. Apparently they had been baptized in “John’s baptism” after that ceased being an acceptable baptism. They would have already known about God, so Paul explained about Christ and holy spirit and “they got baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.” (Acts 19:2-6) Thus they could join with all the baptized Christians in Ephesus and elsewhere in serving Jehovah. And probably most, if not all, of the other Christians in Ephesus had been baptized after Pentecost 33 C.E. as disciples of Jesus.

Being acceptably baptized in water was thus an experience that Christians shared in common. Paul could appropriately draw upon this as an example of the oneness that Christians should have.

At Matthew 11:25; Like 10:21 should be self explanatory, Jesus in these two scriptures is praying to his Father.

At 1 Corinthians 12:3
The word kyʹrios without the definite article "The" is used in 1 Corinthians 12:3. There in the Greek text the same expression occurs as in Philippians 2:11, namely, KYRIOS YESOUS. In both texts the Greek word kyʹrios is a title by which a person of a certain name is to be addressed. Hence it would be wrong, in fact ridiculous, to render that expression KYRIOS YESOUS “Jehovah Jesus.” None of the Hebrew translations render it “Jehovah Jesus,” but recognize the Greek word kyʹrios there as a title and hence use the Hebrew word Adón, meaning Lord, instead of the name Jehovah.

Hence the New World Translation is consistent, and it violates no general rule of action set forth in its Foreword when it renders the expression in 1 Corinthians 12:3, as well as in Philippians 2:11, “Jesus is Lord,” not “Jesus is Jehovah" or Jesus is The Lord. Other Bibles that doesn't use expression, "The Lord" are:
New International version
New living Translation
English Standard version
New King James Version
New American Standard Bible
And many many more too many to list.
Of course no one can admit or believe this if they don't have God's Holy Spirit.

1Corinthians 8:5,6
Paul said: “Though there be that are called gods, whether in heaven or in earth, (as there be gods many, and lords many)”; but Paul was not teaching polytheism thereby. For he added: “But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.” (1 Cor. 8:5, 6, AV) We worship the same God that the Lord Jesus Christ worships, and that is the “one God, the Father.” This worship we render to him through the Son of God, our “one Lord Jesus Christ.” You can't admit or believe this if you don't have God Holy Spirit
 

justbyfaith

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My point is that there is one Lord (Ephesians 4:5) and that that Lord is the Father (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21).

The Father is therefore the only Lord God.

But no one can say that Jesus is the Lord except by the Holy Ghost (1 Corinthians 12:3).

Therefore the Lord, Jesus Christ, is the Father.

This applies even if the definite article is not there in 1 Corinthians 12:3.

No one can say that Jesus is Lord except by the Holy Ghost.

Notice that the word "Lord" is capitalized.

This indicates that Jesus is not one of many lords; but that He is the one Lord spoken of in 1 Corinthians 8:6 and Ephesians 4:5.

Because there is one Lord; but there are lords many and gods many; and the distinction is made by whether the word is capitalized or not, in the English.

The one Lord is clearly the Father (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21); but no one can say that Jesus is that Lord except by the Holy Ghost. It is also clear that Jesus is the Lord (1 Corinthians 8:6).

And you also have a problem: that if the definite article actually belongs there in 1 Corinthians 12:3, you would be failing to say what you can only say by the Holy Ghost unless you say that Jesus is the Lord.

And I happen to believe that the Holy Spirit was in charge of translating our kjv into English.

If we have to go back to the original Greek or Hebrew languages to get the unadulterated full counsel of the gospel of Jesus Christ, then the truth of holy scripture is truly given only to the educated Greek and Hebrews scholars (scribes and Pharisees) rather than the common people.

And when you look at the testimony of holy scripture, it was the scribes and Pharisees who rejected Jesus as their Messiah and crucified Him; but the common people received Him gladly.

I would say therefore that the Lord intends for the common people to be able to easily receive His message.

Thus, we do not have to go back to the original Greek and Hebrew in order to be able to get the real message of what the Lord is trying to say.

We can read it in our handy kjv Bible. The reality of the message is not hidden in an understanding of languages that are antiquated and obtuse.
 
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BARNEY BRIGHT

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Justbyfaith says:
But no one can say that Jesus is the Lord except by the Holy Ghost (1 Corinthians 12:3).[/QUOTE\]

The Apostle Paul said: “Therefore I would have you [former devotees of idols] know that nobody when speaking by God’s spirit says: ‘Jesus is accursed!’ and nobody can say: ‘Jesus is Lord!’ except by holy spirit.” (1 Cor. 12:2, 3) God’s spirit in us guides us to make the right confession, acknowledgment or declaration to others, namely, that Jesus is “Lord” by God’s appointment. God raised Jesus from the dead that he might be a living Lord. God seated the resurrected Jesus at his own right hand and made him “Lord” higher than all other creation. If we desire eternal salvation, we are bound to hold fast to the public declaration, confession, acknowledgment that we made before our water baptism, namely, that Jesus Christ is the Lord whom Jehovah God has appointed over us and whom we lovingly accept.
Nobody has ever made The True God Jehovah our Lord or God. The True God Jehovah has always been creations Lord and God.
When Jesus was resurrected he tell us that he has a Father and God who is our Father and God. Jesus wasn't saying to his Apostles that he was their Father and God. Jesus Father and God is our Father and God.(John 10:14-17)

In the scriptures Jesus said many things to help people know that he does have a Father and God which is our Father and God. The ones that have no faith in this are the ones without God's Holy Spirit. You will find nowhere in scripture where the True God Jehovah has a Father or God. God has made all things and everyone subject to his Only Begotten Son.The Father and God of Jesus is the only person who is above or has authority over everyone and everything including his Only Begotten Son.
 

justbyfaith

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Scripture is clear that there is one Lord (Ephesians 4:5, 1 Corinthians 8:6); and that the Father is the Lord of heaven and earth.

Therefore, when we say, "Jesus is Lord!" we are saying that He is the same Lord (1 Corinthians 12:5, 2 Corinthians 8:19).

You will find nowhere in scripture where the True God Jehovah has a Father or God.

I can, however, show you in holy scripture where Jehovah has a Maker.

Isa 45:11, Thus saith the LORD (Jehovah), the Holy One of Israel, and his Maker, Ask me of things to come concerning my sons, and concerning the work of my hands command ye me.

This, of course, refers to the fact that Jehovah-is-salvation (Jesus) was made of the seed of David according to the flesh (Romans 1:3).
 

BARNEY BRIGHT

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Justbyfaith says
I can, however, show you in holy scripture where Jehovah has a Maker.

Isa 45:11, Thus saith the LORD (Jehovah), the Holy One of Israel, and his Maker, Ask me of things to come concerning my sons, and concerning the work of my hands command ye me.

This, of course, refers to the fact that Jehovah-is-salvation (Jesus) was made of the seed of David according to the flesh (Romans 1:3).[/QUOTE]


This scripture isn't saying that the True God Jehovah has a maker.
Describing Jehovah as “the Holy One” stresses his sanctity. Calling him “the Former” emphasizes his right as the Creator to decide how things will work out. Jehovah is able to inform the sons of Israel about things to come and to take care of his handiwork, that is, his people. Once again the principles of creation and revelation are shown to be related. As the Creator of the entire universe, Jehovah has the right to guide events in the way he decides. (1 Chronicles 29:11, 12) In the case being discussed, the Sovereign Ruler has decided to raise up Cyrus, a heathen, as liberator of Israel. Cyrus’ coming, although still future, is as certain as the existence of heaven and earth. Which son of Israel, then, would dare to criticize the Father, “Jehovah of armies”?

You see the sons of Israel are objecting to what Jehovah foretells. Perhaps they do not believe that Jehovah will allow his people to go into exile. Or maybe they find fault with the idea that Israel will be liberated by a king of a heathen nation instead of a king of David’s house. To portray the absurdity of such objections, Isaiah compares objectors to discarded lumps of clay and scraps of pottery that would dare to question the wisdom of their maker. The very thing the potter has formed is now stating that the potter has no hands or power to form. How foolish! The objectors are like little children daring to criticize their parents’ authority. (Isaiah 45:9,10)
 

BARNEY BRIGHT

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It is indeed, saying that.

Justbyfaith, you can twist scripture to try to prove God has someone above him he answers to all you want, but twisting scriptures you are to try to prove your beliefs. The Angel that became Satan does that, you obviously want to follow his example to try and prove your beliefs.
 

justbyfaith

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Hi @BARNEY BRIGHT,

The concept that Jesus is God is a fact of holy scripture and a doctrine that is essential for salvation.

The scribes and Pharisees understood Jesus' claim to be God. When Jesus broke normal grammatical form in order to make a claim in John 8:58 ("Verily, verily, I say unto you, before Abraham was, I am"), they picked up stones to stone Him (John 8:59).

When Jesus later made a similar claim, they picked up stones to stone Him again. When He asked them what good work they were stoning Him for, they responded that they were not stoning Him for a good work; but "because that thou, being a man, make thyself God." (see John 10:31-33).

It didn't register in their minds the first time He had made this claim; in which He also made certain to declare that if they did not believe in the reality of it, they would die in their sins (John 8:24).

In both John 8:24 and in John 8:58, you can be sure that He was referencing back to what it says in the Old Testament, in Exodus 3:14 (kjv).

Exo 3:14, And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.
 

tigger 2

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I can, however, show you in holy scripture where Jehovah has a Maker.

Isa 45:11, Thus saith the LORD (Jehovah), the Holy One of Israel, and his Maker, Ask me of things to come concerning my sons, and concerning the work of my hands command ye me.

This, of course, refers to the fact that Jehovah-is-salvation (Jesus) was made of the seed of David according to the flesh (Romans 1:3).


Is. 45:11 is speaking of YHWH (LORD/Jehovah) as the creator of Israel:

Is. 45:11 -

"The LORD is the Holy One of Israel. He made them. He says to them," NIRV.

"This is what the LORD says— the Holy One of Israel, and its Maker:" - NIV, Cf. AT; CSB; CEB; CEV; ERV; EHV; EXB; HCSB; LEB; Moffatt; TLB; NCV; NRSV; TLV.

"Thus saith the Lord, the Holy One of Israel, and his Maker,
&c.] He whose name alone is Jehovah, who is glorious in holiness, the Sanctifier of his people, and the Maker of them, both as creatures, and new creatures: ask me of things to come concerning my sons, and concerning the work of my hands command ye me;" - John Gill's Exposition of the Bible.

Also notice the capitalization of pronouns referring to God in some Bibles. Compare 'his' with 'Me' in Is. 45:11: KJ21; MEV; NASB; NKJV; NLV.

Any time you can find so many trinitarian scholars and translators who agree that a 'proof' verse is NOT a trinitarian proof, you can be assured that it is NOT a valid 'proof.'
 
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BARNEY BRIGHT

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I AM
Part 1

A text in John’s writings the trinitarians bring up in their arguing that John’s writings teach that Jesus Christ is God. That text is found in Jesus’ argument with the Jews given in John 8:56-58 (AV): “Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad. Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham? Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.”

On this expression the comment of the Abbé Drioux edition of the Holy Bible is: “Before Abraham was, I am, in fact God eternal, before Abraham was born.”* In a footnote in his Bible translation Monsignor Ronald A. Knox says: “Joh 8 Verse 58. ‘I am’; here our Lord seems explicitly to claim a Divine title, compare Exodus 3:14.”* So we turn to Exodus 3:14 (Dy) and read. “God said to Moses: I AM WHO AM. He said: Thus shalt thou say to the children of Israel: HE WHO IS, hath sent me to you.” But the King James Version reads: “And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.”

The expression "I AM” is there used as a title or a name, and in the Hebrew this expression is the one word Ehyéh (אהיה). Jehovah God was there speaking to Moses and sending him to the children of Israel. Well, then, in John 8:58, was Jesus claiming to be Jehovah God? Not according to many modern Bible translators, as the following quotations will prove: Moffatt: “I have existed before Abraham was born.” Schonfield and An American Translation: “I existed before Abraham was born.” Stage (German): “Before Abraham came to be, I was.”* Pfaefflin (German): “Before there was an Abraham, I was already there!”* George M. Lamsa, translating from the Syriac Peshitta, says: “Before Abraham was born, I was.” Dr. James Murdock, also translating from the Syriac Peshitto Version, says: “Before Abraham existed, I was.” The Brazilian Sacred Bible published by the Catholic Bible Center of São Paulo says: “Before Abraham existed, I was existing.”—2nd edition, of 1960, Bíblia Sagrada, Editora “AVE MARIA” Ltda.*


We must remember, also, that when Jesus spoke to those Jews, he spoke to them in the Hebrew of his day, not in Greek. How Jesus said John 8:58 to the Jews is therefore presented to us in the modern translations by Hebrew scholars who translated the Greek into the Bible Hebrew, as follows: Dr. Franz Delitzsch: “Before Abraham was, I have been.”*Isaac Salkinson and David Ginsburg: “I have been when there had as yet been no Abraham.”* In both of these Hebrew translations the translators use for the expression “I have been” two Hebrew words, both a pronoun and a verb, namely, aní hayíthi; they do not use the one Hebrew word: Ehyéh. So they do not make out that in John 8:58 Jesus was trying to imitate Jehovah God and give us the impression that he himself was Jehovah, the I AM.
 
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BARNEY BRIGHT

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I AM
PART 2

In what language did John write his life account of Jesus Christ? In the Greek language, not in Hebrew; and in the Greek text the controversial expression is Egó eimí. Just by itself, without any introductory material ahead of it, Egó eimí means “I am.” Now this expression Egó eimí occurs also in John 8:24, 28; and in those verses the Authorized or King James Version and the Douay Version and others render the expression into English as “I am he,” the pronoun he being put in italics to indicate that the pronoun he is added or inserted. (AV; AS; Yg) But here, in John 8:58, those versions do not render this same expression as “I am he,” but only as “I am.” They evidently want to give us the idea that Jesus was not simply referring to his existence but also giving himself a title that belongs to Jehovah God,* in imitation of Exodus 3:14.

When writing John 8:58, the apostle was not quoting from the Greek Septuagint Version, a translation of the Hebrew Scriptures made by Greek-speaking Jews of Alexandria, Egypt, before the birth of Christ. Let anyone who reads Greek compare John 8:58 in Greek and Exodus 3:14 in the Greek Septuagint, and he will find that the Septuagint reading of Exodus 3:14 does not use the expression Egó eimí for God’s name, when God says to Moses: “I AM hath sent me unto you.” The Greek Septuagint uses the expression ho Ōn, which means “The Being,” or, “The One who is.” This fact is clearly presented to us in Bagster’s translation of the Greek Septuagint, at Exodus 3:14, which reads: “And God spoke to Moses, saying, I am THE BEING [ho Ōn]; and he said, Thus shall ye say to the children of Israel, THE BEING [ho Ōn] has sent me to you.” According to Charles Thomson’s translation of the Greek Septuagint, Exodus 3:14 reads: “God spoke to Moses saying, I am The I Am [ho Ōn]. Moreover he said, Thus shalt thou say to the children of Israel, The I Am [ho Ōn] hath sent me to you.”* Thus this comparison of the two Greek texts, that of the Septuagint and that of John 8:58, removes all basis for trinitarians to argue that Jesus, in John 8:58, was trying to fit Exodus 3:14 to himself, as if he was Jehovah God.

O yes, the Greek expression ho Ōn does occur in the apostle John’s writings. It occurs in the Greek text of John 1:18; 3:13 (AV; Yg), Joh 3:31; 6:40; 8:47;12:17; 18:37, but not as a title or name. So in four of those verses it applies, not to Jesus, but to other persons. However, in the Revelation or Apocalypse the apostle John does use the expression ho Ōn as a title or designation five times, namely, in Revelation 1:4, 8; 4:8; 11:17; 16:5. But in all five cases the expression ho Ōn is applied to Jehovah God the Almighty, and not to the Lamb of God, the Word of God.

For example, Revelation 1:4, 8 (AV) reads: “John to the seven churches which are in Asia: Grace be unto you, and peace, from him which is [ho ōn], and which was, and which is to come; and from the seven Spirits which are before his throne.” “I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is [ho ōn], and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.” Revelation 4:8applies ho ōn to the Lord God Almighty on his heavenly throne, and Revelation 5:6, 7 shows that the Lamb of God comes to him later on. Revelation 11:17 applies ho ōn to the Lord God Almighty when he takes power to rule as King. Revelation 16:5applies ho ōn to the Lord God when he acts as Judge. Hence John 8:58 fails the clergy as proof of there being a “triune God,” for in that verse, as well translated by Dr. James Moffatt, An American Translation, and others, Jesus was saying merely that he had had a prehuman existence in heaven with his Father and that this prehuman existence began before Abraham was born.
 
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BARNEY BRIGHT

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Justbyfaith said:
The scribes and Pharisees understood Jesus' claim to be God. When Jesus broke normal grammatical form in order to make a claim in John 8:58 ("Verily, verily, I say unto you, before Abraham was, I am"), they picked up stones to stone Him (John 8:59).[/QUOTE\]

In verses 53,54,55 of John chapter 8 Jesus is admitting he's not God

Justbyfaith said:
When Jesus later made a similar claim, they picked up stones to stone Him again. When He asked them what good work they were stoning Him for, they responded that they were not stoning Him for a good work; but "because that thou, being a man, make thyself God." (see John 10:31-33).[/QUOTE\]



I and the Father Are One”

THAT text, at John 10:30, is often cited to support the Trinity, even though no third person is mentioned there. But Jesus himself showed what he meant by his being “one” with the Father. At John 17:21, 22, he prayed to God that his disciples “may all be one, just as you, Father, are in union with me and I am in union with you, that they also may be in union with us, . . . that they may be one just as we are one.” Was Jesus praying that all his disciples would become a single entity? No, obviously Jesus was praying that they would be united in thought and purpose, as he and God were.—See also 1 Corinthians 1:10.

At 1 Corinthians 3: 6, 8 Paul says: “I planted, Apollos watered . . . He that plants and he that waters are one.” Paul did not mean that he and Apollos were two persons in one; he meant that they were unified in purpose. The Greek word that Paul used here for “one” (hen) is neuter, literally “one (thing),” indicating oneness in cooperation. It is the same word that Jesus used at John 10:30 to describe his relationship with his Father. It is also the same word that Jesus used at John 17:21, 22. So when he used the word “one” (hen) in these cases, he was talking about unity of thought and purpose.

Regarding John 10:30, John Calvin (who was a Trinitarian) said in the book Commentary on the Gospel According to John: “The ancients made a wrong use of this passage to prove that Christ is . . . of the same essence with the Father. For Christ does not argue about the unity of substance, but about the agreement which he has with the Father.


Right in the context of the verses after John 10:30, Jesus forcefully argued that his words were not a claim to be God. He asked the Jews who wrongly drew that conclusion and wanted to stone him: “Why do you charge me with blasphemy because I, consecrated and sent into the world by the Father, said, ‘I am God’s son’?” (John 10:31-36, NE) No, Jesus claimed that he was, not God the Son, but the Son of God.

“Making Himself Equal to God”?

ANOTHER scripture offered as support for the Trinity is John 5:18. It says that the Jews (as at John 10:31-36) wanted to kill Jesus because “he was also calling God his own Father, making himself equal to God.”


But who said that Jesus was making himself equal to God? Not Jesus. He defended himself against this false charge in the very next verse (Joh 5:19): “To this accusation Jesus replied: . . . ‘the Son can do nothing by himself; he can do only what he sees the Father doing.’”—JB.

By this, Jesus showed the Jews that he was not equal to God and therefore could not act on his own initiative. Can we imagine someone equal to Almighty God saying that he could “do nothing by himself”? (Compare Daniel 4:34, 35.) Interestingly, the context of both John 5:18 and Joh 10:30 shows that Jesus defended himself against false charges from Jews who, like the Trinitarians, were drawing wrong conclusions!


Equal With God”?

AT PHILIPPIANS 2:6 the Catholic Douay Version (Dy) of 1609 says of Jesus: “Who being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God.” The King James Version (KJ) of 1611 reads much the same. A number of such versions are still used by some to support the idea that Jesus was equal to God. But note how other translations render this verse:

1869: “who, being in the form of God, did not regard it as a thing to be grasped at to be on an equality with God.” The New Testament, by G. R. Noyes.

1965: “He—truly of divine nature!—never self-confidently made himself equal to God.” Das Neue Testament, revised edition, by Friedrich Pfäfflin.

1968: “who, although being in the form of God, did not consider being equal to God a thing to greedily make his own.” La Bibbia Concordata.

1976: “He always had the nature of God, but he did not think that by force he should try to become equal with God.” Today’s English Version.

1984: “who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God.” New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures.

1985: “Who, being in the form of God, did not count equality with God something to be grasped.” The New Jerusalem Bible.

Some claim, however, that even these more accurate renderings imply that (1) Jesus already had equality but did not want to hold on to it or that (2) he did not need to grasp at equality because he already had it.

In this regard, Ralph Martin, in The Epistle of Paul to the Philippians, says of the original Greek: “It is questionable, however, whether the sense of the verb can glide from its real meaning of ‘to seize’, ‘to snatch violently’ to that of ‘to hold fast.’” The Expositor’s Greek Testament also says: “We cannot find any passage where ἁρπάζω [har·paʹzo] or any of its derivatives has the sense of ‘holding in possession,’ ‘retaining’. It seems invariably to mean ‘seize,’ ‘snatch violently’. Thus it is not permissible to glide from the true sense ‘grasp at’ into one which is totally different, ‘hold fast.’”

From the foregoing it is apparent that the translators of versions such as the Douay and the King James are bending the rules to support Trinitarian ends. Far from saying that Jesus thought it was appropriate to be equal to God, the Greek of Philippians 2:6, when read objectively, shows just the opposite, that Jesus did not think it was appropriate.


The context of the surrounding verses (Php 2:3-5,7, 8, Dy) makes it clear how Php 2 verse 6 is to be understood. The Philippians were urged: “In humility, let each esteem others better than themselves.” Then Paul uses Christ as the outstanding example of this attitude: “Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus.” What “mind”? To ‘think it not robbery to be equal with God’? No, that would be just the opposite of the point being made! Rather, Jesus, who ‘esteemed God as better than himself,’ would never ‘grasp for equality with God,’ but instead he “humbled himself, becoming obedient unto death.”

Surely, that cannot be talking about any part of Almighty God. It was talking about Jesus Christ, who perfectly illustrated Paul’s point here—namely the importance of humility and obedience to one’s Superior and Creator, Jehovah God.
 
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justbyfaith

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I don't know all about the Greek and Hebrew renderings of everything; but I do trust that the kjv is good enough to show me everything that I need to know about the matter.

If you have to go back to the original Greek and Hebrew to get the real message of God's full counsel (the gospel of Jesus Christ), then that means that the educated Greek and Hebrew scholars have a monopoly on the truth of God's word and the common people are left in the dark.

Personally, I believe that we, the common people, can receive the unadulterated message of God's word through reading our Bible in common English (in the kjv).

Those who claim that they have the real message of the gospel because they know the original Greek and Hebrew can indeed be dishonest with the authority that they would have with people over the fact that the common people don't have knowledge of the original Greek and Hebrew. They can say, the original Greek and Hebrew says this...when in fact that may not be what is said in the original language...for only those who can actually read the original manuscripts (in Greek) would be able to be a true Berean (see Acts of the Apostles 17:10-11) on the matter. (And it is also true that the actual originals have been lost to us).

This provides for a cult mentality in which those who claim to have the understanding of original languages would be given implicit trust and would be completely relied upon to give the accurate renderings of what the original languages actually say to us.

Thus the educated scribe and Pharisee (those who rejected their Messiah and crucified Him) are given ultimate authority over the common people (who received Jesus when He came as the Messiah that He is) and are relied upon (in their unbelief) to give the true message of the gospel to those who can only read their Bible in English.

However, understanding the Bible in the English that it was given to us in is sufficient. The scholars who translated the King James Version prayed about their endeavor carefully and relied fully upon the Holy Spirit to give them the translation that they produced for the common people; who are now able to read the Bible in their own language and who are also able to receive its unadulterated message through such plain reading of what was translated for them.

Thus, when Jesus says, "If you believe not that I am he, you will die in your sins" we can take His word for it.

There is a whole school of thought that denies this essential truth of holy scripture; but I would contend that they are of the broad way that leads to destruction.

For it is indeed the narrow path that leads a man to believe in the Deity of Jesus Christ.

While at the same time I believe that God has decided to make His unadulterated message accessible to His people and that therefore we do not have to get some sort of "special knowledge" of "what the Bible really says" in order to know the truth that brings salvation.

As a matter of fact, all those who reject the concept of the Deity of Jesus Christ are condemned; they will die in their sins, even as John 8:24 so clearly tells us in the kjv. (Of course, there is always the possibility of repenting of unbelief in this truth of holy scripture and accepting the truth of Christ's Deity unto salvation).

One would have to reject entirely the kjv as a translation in order to reject the reality of these truths; and therefore I say verily that JW's and those who subscribe to their teaching only give lip service to the understanding that the kjv is inspired and inerrant. They subscribe to it as long as it supports their false doctrine (rejection of Christ's Deity and salvation by works). But when it begins to refute it, they fall back on their faulty translation, the NeWT, and the teachings that they have received from the elders of their cult as to why that translation is more accurate. But in all reality, there are many places in that translation where things (added in brackets) are not even translated from the original languages but are the added words of the leaders of the cult.

The devil is sly and intelligent...I am certain that he thought long and hard about how to deceive a whole group of people with a lie handed to them that Jesus isn't God...because it is clear in the holy scriptures that Jesus made this doctrine absolutely essential to salvation. Thus he (the devil) created a whole system of doctrine in order to try and defeat the truth of Christ's Deity so that he could bring more people to hell with him. The devil knows where he's going and wants to drag down with him as many people as possible. I pray the Lord that those who pay attention to detail will not be deceived by the prospect of special knowledge; as this was the way that the early gnostics used to procure their converts.
 
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justbyfaith

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There is clearly one Lord in holy scripture (Ephesians 4:5)--the Father (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21).

And no one can say that Jesus is the Lord except by the Holy Ghost (1 Corinthians 12:3).

And Jesus is, in fact, the one Lord of holy scripture (1 Corinthians 8:6).

Now the strategy of the Jehovah's Witnesses amounts really to one thing...and that is to cast doubt on whether the Lord really said what He said in such verses as what I have referenced above.

Clearly, this has also been the strategy of satan from the beginning:

Gen 3:1, Now the serpent was more subtil than any beast of the field which the LORD God had made. And he said unto the woman, Yea, hath God (really) said, Ye shall not eat of every tree of the garden?
 
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BARNEY BRIGHT

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I don't know all about the Greek and Hebrew renderings of everything; but I do trust that the kjv is good enough to show me everything that I need to know about the matter.

If you have to go back to the original Greek and Hebrew to get the real message of God's full counsel (the gospel of Jesus Christ), then that means that the educated Greek and Hebrew scholars have a monopoly on the truth of God's word and the common people are left in the dark.

Personally, I believe that we, the common people, can receive the unadulterated message of God's word through reading our Bible in common English (in the kjv).

Those who claim that they have the real message of the gospel because they know the original Greek and Hebrew can indeed be dishonest with the authority that they would have with people over the fact that the common people don't have knowledge of the original Greek and Hebrew. They can say, the original Greek and Hebrew says this...when in fact that may not be what is said in the original language...for only those who can actually read the original manuscripts (in Greek) would be able to be a true Berean (see Acts of the Apostles 17:10-11) on the matter. (And it is also true that the actual originals have been lost to us).

This provides for a cult mentality in which those who claim to have the understanding of original languages would be given implicit trust and would be completely relied upon to give the accurate renderings of what the original languages actually say to us.

Thus the educated scribe and Pharisee (those who rejected their Messiah and crucified Him) are given ultimate authority over the common people (who received Jesus when He came as the Messiah that He is) and are relied upon (in their unbelief) to give the true message of the gospel to those who can only read their Bible in English.

However, understanding the Bible in the English that it was given to us in is sufficient. The scholars who translated the King James Version prayed about their endeavor carefully and relied fully upon the Holy Spirit to give them the translation that they produced for the common people; who are now able to read the Bible in their own language and who are also able to receive its unadulterated message through such plain reading of what was translated for them.

Thus, when Jesus says, "If you believe not that I am he, you will die in your sins" we can take His word for it.

There is a whole school of thought that denies this essential truth of holy scripture; but I would contend that they are of the broad way that leads to destruction.

For it is indeed the narrow path that leads a man to believe in the Deity of Jesus Christ.

While at the same time I believe that God has decided to make His unadulterated message accessible to His people and that therefore we do not have to get some sort of "special knowledge" of "what the Bible really says" in order to know the truth that brings salvation.

As a matter of fact, all those who reject the concept of the Deity of Jesus Christ are condemned; they will die in their sins, even as John 8:24 so clearly tells us in the kjv.

One would have to reject entirely the kjv as a translation in order to reject the reality of these truths; and therefore I say verily that JW's and those who subscribe to their teaching only give lip service to the understanding that the kjv is inspired and inerrant. They subscribe to it as long as it supports their false doctrine (rejection of Christ's Deity and salvation by works). But when it begins to refute it, they fall back on their faulty translation, the NeWT, and the teachings that they have received from the elders of their cult as to why that translation is more accurate. But in all reality, there are many places in that translation where things (added in brackets) are not even translated from the original languages but are the added words of the leaders of the cult.

The devil is sly and intelligent...I am certain that he thought long and hard about how to deceive a whole group of people with a lie handed to them that Jesus isn't God...because it is clear in the holy scriptures that Jesus made this doctrine absolutely essential to salvation. Thus he (the devil) created a whole system of doctrine in order to try and defeat the truth of Christ's Deity so that he could bring more people to hell with him. The devil knows where he's going and wants to drag down with him as many people as possible. I pray the Lord that those who pay attention to detail will not be deceived by the prospect of special knowledge; as this was the way that the early gnostics used to procure their converts.

From what I have read in the texts that you have posted on this christian site you don't seem to care what the scriptures say even though they are written in English. I've read Bibles that are written in English and I can see for myself that you will take the scriptures even though they're in the English language and take them out of context to try to prove your beliefs. I'm never going to agree with that.