There is controversy concering the mark of the beast as foretold in Revelation 13:17, 14:11, 16:2, 19:20, 20:4. My question is in reference to those and in Dan 5:1-28.To some, they believe that the worship aspect is only in reference to the Antichrist or to his name but if this is so then why would Dan 5:23 be the same as Rev 9:20-21? There is a difference though as seen in Revelation 13:17 while in Daniel had a different course of events taking place after 666 was revealed.Some even suggest it's not even addressing economics but rather worship as if there cant be any correlation between the two, is this so? It is clearly apparent to me that the king and his elite (lords) had control of theeconomics and their reliance of it's influence was more than just acknowledgement. The value of material wealth as resources is not based on the need of the lowly but on the manipulation for it's controll and influenceas it is used for in offerings of diplomacy and prestige.What am I implying? well lets see:1. the first mention of 666 is in Daniel2. the first representation of it was of monotary value/scales1. 666 signified a judgement in daniel exacting in the same manner as scales in economics2. 666 signifies a man but could that number also signify his judgement?The only difference is that Peres was counted rather than Upharsin, why?