Is water baptism necessary for salvation?

Ernest T. Bass · Dec 18, 2019

David Taylor said:
You need to do a word study on eis and what it actually means and its usage. It is not used to say for as in a requirement.

I have and eis means 100% in the Greek "unto" or "for" and NEVER "because". I showed in my last post that the attempt to change the meaning of the word eis to 'because' creates impossibilities. Another example: Matthew 26:28 did Christ shed His blood BECAUSE sins were already remitted or did He shed His blood FOR the remission of sins? Exact same phrase (for remission of sins) in Greek and English in Mt 26:28 as in Acts 2:38.

Baptist commentator AT Robertson had no problem understanding 'eis' means 'for' in Matthew 26:28. Yet faced with the same phrase in Acts 2:38 all of sudden he no longer is sure what "eis" means. He writes about Acts 2:38 "One will decide the use here according as he believes that baptism is essential to the remission of sins or not." He is saying one's personal theology (not the Bible, not the Greek language, not grammar), but one's personal theology should dictate what Acts 2:38 means.

(1) In Acts 2:38 repent is connected to baptize with the conjunction "and" meaning if one is baptized because his sins are already remitted then one repents because his sins are already remitted which makes no sense.

(2) if they were saved prior to verse 38 then those Jews did not know they were saved as seen by their asking Peter what they should do in v37. And Peter tells them in v40 to "save yourselves" which again makes no sense if they were already saved somewhere prior to verse 38.

According to you, if they were saved somewhere prior to verse 38, then two questions:
-Can you point to the verse to where they were saved and why were they saved at that point?
-How would they "save themselves" per v40 if already saved somewhere for some unknown reason prior to v38?

(3) In v21 Peter quotes Joel's prophecy "And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved." This prophecy was fulfilled in verse 38:

v21--------call upon the name of the Lord>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>saved
v38--------repent and be baptized>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> saved/remission of sins

Since there is just one way to be saved, no alternatives, then calling on the name of the Lord means doing what the Lord said to do in repenting and submitting to baptism, Luke 6:46.

If one repents and is baptized BECAUSE he already is saved, then that must mean one calls upon the name of the Lord BECAUSE he already is saved, correct?

(4) verse 40 "Then they that gladly received his word were baptized:..."

This means those that did NOT receive Peter's gospel words were NOT baptized. Logically then, NOT being baptized is the same as NOT receiving the gospel. 2 Thessalonians 1:8 to NOT be in flaming fire one must obey the gospel of Christ. The gospel is the death burial and resurrection of Chrit 1 Corinthians 15:3-4. In baptism (Romans 6) the old man of is dies, one is buried in a water grave, one is 'raised up from' (resurrected) from that watery grace to walk in newness of life. Hence there is a death, burial and resurrection that take place in water baptism and this is how the gospel of Christ is obeyed.

Nondenom40 · Dec 18, 2019

Marymog said:
Hi Helen,

Your POV is common among Reformation Christians but not all Reformation Christians believe what you believe.

Do you believe it is necessary to follow the example that Jesus gave us? If you believe it is necessary to follow His example then water baptism is necessary for salvation. (Matthew 3:13-17)

Do you believe it is necessary to do what Jesus told us to do? If you believe it is necessary for us to do what Jesus told us to do then water baptism is necessary for salvation. (Matt. 28:18-20)

Do you believe it is necessary to adhere to the sound doctrines, whether by word of mouth or letter, of the Apostles? If you believe it is necessary to adhere to the teachings of the Apostles then water baptism is necessary for salvation. (Acts 10:46-48)

Do you believe the earliest Christians adhered to the teachings of the Apostles or the 16th century Christians teachings adhere to their teachings? If you believe the earliest Christians, the ones who were alive when the Apostles walked the earth, would be right on this matter then water baptism is necessary for salvation because that is what they taught/practiced. (Didache chapter 7)

I prayerfully hope you will reconsider your stance on this matter.

Respectfully, Mary

Marymog said:
Isn't being obedient NECESSARY?

Are your children 100% obedient to you? Do you kick them to the curb when they aren't? Or are they your sons and daughters that disobey sometimes? Disobedience does not separate one from the love of God, it might break fellowship but not your position of an adopted son or daughter.

Marymog · Dec 18, 2019

Nondenom40 said:
We know why catholics rarely cite their sources. They don't say what they want them to say.

Where is the necessity in this chapter?

Hi,

If I didn't cite my source from what did you quote? You quoted from THE SOURCE I CITED.....chapter 7 of the Didache

Here is the "necessity in this chapter": And concerning baptism, thus baptize ye:

Other translations: And concerning baptism, baptize this way

But concerning baptism, thus shall ye baptize

The Didache is also called The Teaching of the Twelve Apostles OR The Lord's Teaching Through the Twelve Apostles to the Nations. You choose the 500 year old teachings of the men who disagreed with the Reformers (the Reformers of the Reformers). I choose the 2,000 year teaching of The Church.

The Didache is the first catechism of Christianity. A catechism is a summary or exposition of doctrine and serves as a learning introduction to the Sacraments traditionally used in catechesis or Christian religious teaching of children and adult converts. You choose the 500 year old doctrine of men.

For 2,000 years Christianity has taught (yes even the Reformers) that water baptism is necessary......How is it that YOU are right and the 2,000 year teaching of Christianity is wrong?

It appears you do not believe you need to follow the example of Jesus or the teachings/examples of the Apostles.....

Marymog · Dec 18, 2019

Nondenom40 said:
Are your children 100% obedient to you? Do you kick them to the curb when they aren't? Or are they your sons and daughters that disobey sometimes? Disobedience does not separate one from the love of God, it might break fellowship but not your position of an adopted son or daughter.

Hi dodgeball......Is being obedient necessary?

Truther · Dec 18, 2019

Waiting on him said:
Acts 10:36-48 KJV
[36] The word which God sent unto the children of Israel, preaching peace by Jesus Christ: (he is Lord of all [37] That word, I say, ye know, which was published throughout all Judaea, and began from Galilee, after the baptism which John preached; [38] How God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for God was with him. [39] And we are witnesses of all things which he did both in the land of the Jews, and in Jerusalem; whom they slew and hanged on a tree: [40] Him God raised up the third day, and shewed him openly; [41] Not to all the people, but unto witnesses chosen before of God, even to us, who did eat and drink with him after he rose from the dead. [42] And he commanded us to preach unto the people, and to testify that it is he which was ordained of God to be the Judge of quick and dead. [43] To him give all the prophets witness, that through his name whosoever believeth in him shall receive remission of sins. [44] While Peter yet spake these words, the Holy Ghost fell on all them which heard the word. [45] And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost. [46] For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter, [47] Can any man forbid water, that these should not be baptized, which have received the Holy Ghost as well as we? [48] And he commanded them to be baptized in the name of the Lord. Then prayed they him to tarry certain days.

If you’ll notice the Holy Ghost was poured upon them, they received the gospel as Peter was speaking.

This preceded literal water baptism, which is for a showing of a good conscience toward God.
Tecarta Bible

You just attempted to debunk Acts 2:38 as you skipped it entirely.

Truther · Dec 18, 2019

farouk said:
@Waiting on him
Ephesians 5.26 also speaks of 'the washing of water by the word'.

This was written to them so that were already baptized per Acts 2:38.

Gotcha

Nondenom40 · Dec 18, 2019

Ernest T. Bass said:
I have and eis means 100% in the Greek "unto" or "for" and NEVER "because". I showed in my last post that the attempt to change the meaning of the word eis to 'because' creates impossibilities. Another example: Matthew 26:28 did Christ shed His blood BECAUSE sins were already remitted or did He shed His blood FOR the remission of sins? Exact same phrase (for remission of sins) in Greek and English in Mt 26:28 as in Acts 2:38.

Baptist commentator AT Robertson had no problem understanding 'eis' means 'for' in Matthew 26:28. Yet faced with the same phrase in Acts 2:38 all of sudden he no longer is sure what "eis" means. He writes about Acts 2:38 "One will decide the use here according as he believes that baptism is essential to the remission of sins or not." He is saying one's personal theology (not the Bible, not the Greek language, not grammar), but one's personal theology should dictate what Acts 2:38 means.

You selectively cite Robertson. Here is the full treatment on Act 2:38;

Robertson's Word Pictures; (emphasis mine)

Repent ye (μετανοησατε). First aorist (ingressive) active imperative. Change your mind and your life. Turn right about and do it now. You crucified this Jesus. Now crown him in your hearts as Lord and Christ. This first.

And be baptized every one of you (κα βαπτισθητω εκαστος υμων). Rather, "And let each one of you be baptized." Change of number from plural to singular and of person from second to third. This change marks a break in the thought here that the English translation does not preserve. The first thing to do is make a radical and complete change of heart and life. Then let each one be baptized after this change has taken place, and the act of baptism be performed "in the name of Jesus Christ" (εν τω ονοματ Ιησου Χριστου). In accordance with the command of Jesus in Mt 28:19 (εις το ονομα). No distinction is to be insisted on between εις το ονομα and εν τω ονοματ with βαπτιζω since εις and εν are really the same word in origin. In Ac 10:48 εν τω ονοματ Ιησου Χριστου occurs, but εις to ονομα in Acts 8:16; Acts 19:5. The use of ονομα means in the name or with the authority of one as εις ονομα προφητου (Mt 10:41) as a prophet, in the name of a prophet. In the Acts the full name of the Trinity does not occur in baptism as in Mt 28:19, but this does not show that it was not used. The name of Jesus Christ is the distinctive one in Christian baptism and really involves the Father and the Spirit. See on Mt 28:19 for discussion of this point. "Luke does not give the form of words used in baptism by the Apostles, but merely states the fact that they baptized those who acknowledged Jesus as Messiah or as Lord" (Page).

Unto the remission of your sins (εις αφεσιν των αμαρτιων υμων). This phrase is the subject of endless controversy as men look at it from the standpoint of sacramental or of evangelical theology. In themselves the words can express aim or purpose for that use of εις does exist as in 1Co 2:7 εις δοξαν ημων (for our glory). But then another usage exists which is just as good Greek as the use of εις for aim or purpose. It is seen in Mt 10:41 in three examples εις ονομα προφητου, δικαιου, μαθητου where it cannot be purpose or aim, but rather the basis or ground, on the basis of the name of prophet, righteous man, disciple, because one is, etc. It is seen again in Mt 12:41 about the preaching of Jonah (εις το κηρυγμα Ιωνα). They repented because of (or at) the preaching of Jonah. The illustrations of both usages are numerous in the N.T. and the Koine generally (Robertson, Grammar, p. 592). One will decide the use here according as he believes that baptism is essential to the remission of sins or not. My view is decidedly against the idea that Peter, Paul, or any one in the New Testament taught baptism as essential to the remission of sins or the means of securing such remission. So I understand Peter to be urging baptism on each of them who had already turned (repented) and for it to be done in the name of Jesus Christ on the basis of the forgiveness of sins which they had already received.

Seems Robertson isn't as wishy washy as you portray him to be.

This means those that did NOT receive Peter's gospel words were NOT baptized. Logically then, NOT being baptized is the same as NOT receiving the gospel. 2 Thessalonians 1:8 to NOT be in flaming fire one must obey the gospel of Christ. The gospel is the death burial and resurrection of Chrit 1 Corinthians 15:3-4. In baptism (Romans 6) the old man of is dies, one is buried in a water grave, one is 'raised up from' (resurrected) from that watery grace to walk in newness of life. Hence there is a death, burial and resurrection that take place in water baptism and this is how the gospel of Christ is obeyed.

And you'll never find that anywhere in Gods word. What did Paul say about baptism and the gospel?

1 Cor 1:17
17 For Christ did not send me to baptize, but to preach the gospel, not in cleverness of speech, that the cross of Christ should not be made void.NASB

Paul makes a distinction between the gospel and baptism and baptism is not part of the gospel. It comes after one is saved. It is not part of salvation itself.

Truther · Dec 18, 2019

upwardmoving said:
Baptism is required. Water 'baptism', an element of this non-eternal world, 'baptism' is not. Only Jesus can baptize us into His body, His kingdom realm. Jesus, God, is Spirit. Therefore, all must be 'immersed' into Jesus Christ and maintain 'immersion' into Jesus Christ. That's what true 'baptism' is. Not a one-time sprinkle, dunk, or etc. But a continual 'immersion' spiritually.

No, the born again experience requires death and burial before rebirth.

Death is repentance and burial is water baptism.

Baptism after being born again is a buried alive experience.

Terrifying indeed

Marymog · Dec 18, 2019

Nondenom40 said:
We know why Catholics rarely cite their sources. They don't say what they want them to say.

Where is the necessity in this chapter?

Ditto..

You should follow Scripture. It is necessary that we follow His and the Apostles example and do what they say:

1 John 2:6: the one who says he abides in Him ought himself to walk in the same manner as He walked.

1 Peter 2:21: To this you were called, because Christ suffered for you, leaving you an example, that you should follow in his steps.

1 Corinthians 11:1: Be imitators of me, just as I also am of Christ.

Nondenom40 · Dec 18, 2019

Marymog said:
Hi,

If I didn't cite my source from what did you quote? You quoted from THE SOURCE I CITED.....chapter 7 of the Didache

Here is the "necessity in this chapter": And concerning baptism, thus baptize ye:

Other translations: And concerning baptism, baptize this way

But concerning baptism, thus shall ye baptize

The Didache is also called The Teaching of the Twelve Apostles OR The Lord's Teaching Through the Twelve Apostles to the Nations. You choose the 500 year old teachings of the men who disagreed with the Reformers (the Reformers of the Reformers). I choose the 2,000 year teaching of The Church.

The Didache is the first catechism of Christianity. A catechism is a summary or exposition of doctrine and serves as a learning introduction to the Sacraments traditionally used in catechesis or Christian religious teaching of children and adult converts. You choose the 500 year old doctrine of men.

For 2,000 years Christianity has taught (yes even the Reformers) that water baptism is necessary......How is it that YOU are right and the 2,000 year teaching of Christianity is wrong?

It appears you do not believe you need to follow the example of Jesus or the teachings/examples of the Apostles.....

Thats a lot of eisegesis on your part. Its giving the 'how to' baptize. Not 'do this or else'. Its your burden to prove they meant the latter. Your proof is unconvincing. Nowhere does it say that baptism is do or die. It simply says heres how it should be done. This is also shown by telling those participating that they should fast. Why don't catholics fast prior to baptism? And the one doing the baptizing needs to fast too. Why aren't catholics taking the early churchs teaching to heart? Seems you don't believe what youre shoveling.

My earlier post seems to have not posted correctly. I cited the entire chapter but it didn't get posted. Here it is again.

Chapter 7 - Concerning Baptism

1. And concerning baptism, thus baptize ye: Having first said all these things, baptize into the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Spirit, in living water. 2. But if thou have not living water, baptize into other water; and if thou canst not in cold, in warm. 3. But if thou have not either, pour out water thrice upon the head into the name of Father and Son and Holy Spirit. 4. But before the baptism let the baptizer fast, and the baptized, and whatever others can; but thou shalt order the baptized to fast one or two days before.

(from Ante-Nicene Fathers, Volume 7, PC Study Bible electronic database Copyright © 2003, 2006 by Biblesoft, Inc. All rights reserved.)

So go ahead and make excuses as to why your church doesn't make everyone fast before their baptism. Nothing here smacks of necessity. Thats your presupposition talking, not the text.

Nondenom40 · Dec 18, 2019

Marymog said:
You should follow Scripture. It is necessary that we follow His and the Apostles example and do what they say:

1 John 2:6: the one who says he abides in Him ought himself to walk in the same manner as He walked.

1 Peter 2:21: To this you were called, because Christ suffered for you, leaving you an example, that you should follow in his steps.

1 Corinthians 11:1: Be imitators of me, just as I also am of Christ.

This is awesome! You cite the didache to promote your unbiblical teaching. I cited the actual chapter for all to see, even challenging you to show us where there is any necessity AND the fact that all participating had to fast (which i'm sure modern catholics do not do), NOW you want to completely ignore your own source and go to scripture? Well which is it? Is it your infallible ecfs or scripture? Cuz i can argue both. But youre bouncing around like a ball from here to there desperately trying to run away from the obvious...i.e. your points, have no point. Water baptism is now and always has been done after the person hears the gospel and is saved. When you want to pick a source and stick with it let me know. I'm not chasing you all over creation waving your own sources in your face when its apparent you don't want to discuss them once they are actually cited in full. NEXT.

Marymog · Dec 18, 2019

Nondenom40 said:
Thats a lot of eisegesis on your part. Its giving the 'how to' baptize. Not 'do this or else'. Its your burden to prove they meant the latter. Your proof is unconvincing. Nowhere does it say that baptism is do or die. It simply says heres how it should be done. This is also shown by telling those participating that they should fast. Why don't catholics fast prior to baptism? And the one doing the baptizing needs to fast too. Why aren't catholics taking the early churchs teaching to heart? Seems you don't believe what youre shoveling.

My earlier post seems to have not posted correctly. I cited the entire chapter but it didn't get posted. Here it is again.

So go ahead and make excuses as to why your church doesn't make everyone fast before their baptism. Nothing here smacks of necessity. Thats your presupposition talking, not the text.

The "do this or else" is rife in Scripture. Concerning baptism Christ said no one can enter the kingdom of God unless they are born of water and Spirit. Please see post #709 and decide if YOU are truly following his example on baptism. If you are not following His example you are not following Scripture.

The binding Church law concerning fasting before baptism has changed since the Didache was written. Like Jesus said: Whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven. The Church no longer binds fasting to baptism.

Do you adhere to Matthew 19:21?

Marymog · Dec 18, 2019

Nondenom40 said:
This is awesome! You cite the didache to promote your unbiblical teaching. I cited the actual chapter for all to see, even challenging you to show us where there is any necessity AND the fact that all participating had to fast (which i'm sure modern catholics do not do), NOW you want to completely ignore your own source and go to scripture? Well which is it? Is it your infallible ecfs or scripture? Cuz i can argue both. But youre bouncing around like a ball from here to there desperately trying to run away from the obvious...i.e. your points, have no point. Water baptism is now and always has been done after the person hears the gospel and is saved. When you want to pick a source and stick with it let me know. I'm not chasing you all over creation waving your own sources in your face when its apparent you don't want to discuss them once they are actually cited in full. NEXT.

Ummmmm......I cited the Didache, which is believe to have been written BEFORE some books in Scripture, as an example of what the early Christians practiced as a necessity....water baptism.

I cited Scripture to show you that you MUST follow the example of Jesus and the teachings of the Apostles. Water baptism was the example of Jesus and the teaching of the Apostles. If YOU don't want to follow the example of Jesus and the teachings of the Apostles that is your problem....not mine or the billions of Christians who adhere to Scripture concerning the necessity of baptism and doing what we were told to do.

I never said the ECF's were infallible.

Only The Church is infallible.....just like scripture says: 1 Timothy 3:15. And The Church, for 2,000 years, has taught about the necessity of baptism with water.

You citing the Didache in full works to my advantage and destroys your non-biblical belief. It shows how the Catholic Church is The Church started by Christ: Matthew 16:18 and not the church you follow.

What is your "source" for your belief? Because what you are saying is a 500 year old belief sooooo you must have learned it from someone. Who is that someone Nondenom? Or are you self taught? If so, you learned it from YOU!!

Nondenom40 · Dec 18, 2019

Marymog said:
The "do this or else" is rife in Scripture. Concerning baptism Christ said no one can enter the kingdom of God unless they are born of water and Spirit. Please see post #709 and decide if YOU are truly following his example on baptism. If you are not following His example you are not following Scripture.

John 3:5 has nothing to do with water baptism, so thats out.

The binding Church law concerning fasting before baptism has changed since the Didache was written. Like Jesus said: Whatever you bind on earth shall be bound in heaven. The Church no longer binds fasting to baptism.

Like clockwork....

Do you adhere to Matthew 19:21?

Another verse ripped from its context. But since you believe it, do you? What kind of house do you have? Got a car? How are you posting on these boards if you've sold all you have?? Or don't you take your own talking points seriously?

Marymog · Dec 18, 2019

Nondenom40 said:
John 3:5 has nothing to do with water baptism, so thats out.

So says YOU. The earliest historical writings we have from the Christian men who's shoulders you stand on says it does have to do with water baptism. It is your Protestant Reformers that teach otherwise. And your ears have been tickled by them.

For you see the entire book refers to water baptism BEFORE and AFTER that statement from Jesus in John 3:5. Why did Jesus suddenly speak out of context? Wouldn't that make his teaching confusing? Well, it's not confusing when it's taken in context!!

reformed1689 · Dec 18, 2019

Marymog said:
Concerning baptism Christ said no one can enter the kingdom of God unless they are born of water and Spirit.

For the umpteenth time, this is not talking about baptism.

GerhardEbersoehn · Dec 18, 2019

Ernest T. Bass said:
I have and eis means 100% in the Greek "unto" or "for" and NEVER "because". I showed in my last post that the attempt to change the meaning of the word eis to 'because' creates impossibilities. Another example: Matthew 26:28 did Christ shed His blood BECAUSE sins were already remitted or did He shed His blood FOR the remission of sins? Exact same phrase (for remission of sins) in Greek and English in Mt 26:28 as in Acts 2:38.

Good

GerhardEbersoehn · Dec 18, 2019

Ernest T. Bass said:
I have and eis means 100% in the Greek "unto" or "for" and NEVER "because". I showed in my last post that the attempt to change the meaning of the word eis to 'because' creates impossibilities. Another example: Matthew 26:28 did Christ shed His blood BECAUSE sins were already remitted or did He shed His blood FOR the remission of sins? Exact same phrase (for remission of sins) in Greek and English in Mt 26:28 as in Acts 2:38.

Baptist commentator AT Robertson had no problem understanding 'eis' means 'for' in Matthew 26:28. Yet faced with the same phrase in Acts 2:38 all of sudden he no longer is sure what "eis" means. He writes about Acts 2:38 "One will decide the use here according as he believes that baptism is essential to the remission of sins or not." He is saying one's personal theology (not the Bible, not the Greek language, not grammar), but one's personal theology should dictate what Acts 2:38 means.

(1) In Acts 2:38 repent is connected to baptize with the conjunction "and" meaning if one is baptized because his sins are already remitted then one repents because his sins are already remitted which makes no sense.

(2) if they were saved prior to verse 38 then those Jews did not know they were saved as seen by their asking Peter what they should do in v37. And Peter tells them in v40 to "save yourselves" which again makes no sense if they were already saved somewhere prior to verse 38.

According to you, if they were saved somewhere prior to verse 38, then two questions:
-Can you point to the verse to where they were saved and why were they saved at that point?
-How would they "save themselves" per v40 if already saved somewhere for some unknown reason prior to v38?

(3) In v21 Peter quotes Joel's prophecy "And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved." This prophecy was fulfilled in verse 38:

v21--------call upon the name of the Lord>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>saved
v38--------repent and be baptized>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>>> saved/remission of sins

Since there is just one way to be saved, no alternatives, then calling on the name of the Lord means doing what the Lord said to do in repenting and submitting to baptism, Luke 6:46.

If one repents and is baptized BECAUSE he already is saved, then that must mean one calls upon the name of the Lord BECAUSE he already is saved, correct?

(4) verse 40 "Then they that gladly received his word were baptized:..."

This means those that did NOT receive Peter's gospel words were NOT baptized. Logically then, NOT being baptized is the same as NOT receiving the gospel. 2 Thessalonians 1:8 to NOT be in flaming fire one must obey the gospel of Christ. The gospel is the death burial and resurrection of Chrit 1 Corinthians 15:3-4. In baptism (Romans 6) the old man of is dies, one is buried in a water grave, one is 'raised up from' (resurrected) from that watery grace to walk in newness of life. Hence there is a death, burial and resurrection that take place in water baptism and this is how the gospel of Christ is obeyed.

You will begin speak the truth once you stop interjecting the word and concept of HO2.

Grailhunter · Dec 19, 2019

1st Peter 3:20-22
who once were disobedient, when the patience of God kept waiting in the days of Noah, during the construction of the ark, in which a few, that is, eight persons, were brought safely through the water. Corresponding to that, baptism now saves you--not the removal of dirt from the flesh, but an appeal to God for a good conscience--through the resurrection of Jesus Christ, who is at the right hand of God, having gone into heaven, after angels and authorities and powers had been subjected to Him

Acts 8:36-39
As they went along the road they came to some water; and the eunuch said, "Look! Water! What prevents me from being baptized?" [And Philip said, "If you believe with all your heart, you may." And he answered and said, "I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God."] And he ordered the chariot to stop; and they both went down into the water, Philip as well as the eunuch, and he baptized him

Acts 11:16
Peter speaking, Then remembered I the word of the Lord, how that he said, John indeed baptized with water; but you shall be baptized with the Holy Spirit.

Acts 22:16
Paul said, And now why do you delay? Arise, and be baptized and wash away your sins, calling on the His name.

Mark 1:8
John the Baptist said, I indeed have baptized you with water: but he shall baptize you with the Holy Spirit.

Luke 3:3

Speaking of John the Baptist. And he came into all the country about Jordan, preaching the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.

John 3:5
“Truly, truly, I say to you, unless one is born of water and the Spirit, he cannot enter in to the Kingdom of God.”

John 3:22
After these things came Jesus and his disciples into the land of Judaea; and there he tarried with them, and baptized. And John also was baptizing in Aenon near to Salim, because there was much water there: and they came, and were baptized. Can you imagine being baptized by God!

Grailhunter · Dec 19, 2019

The Early Church Fathers on the topic of Water Baptism is Necessary for salvation

Irenaeus (120?-200), “'And dipped himself,' says [the Scripture], 'seven times in Jordan.' It was not for nothing that Naaman of old, when suffering from leprosy, was purified upon his being baptized, but it served as an indication to us. For as we are lepers in sin, we are made clean, by means of the sacred water and the invocation of the Lord, from our old transgressions; being spiritually regenerated as new-born babes, even as the Lord has declared: 'Except a man be born again through water and the Spirit, he shall not enter into the kingdom of heaven.'" (Fragment, 34, A.D. 190).

Tertullian (155-220), “When, however, the prescript is laid down that 'without baptism, salvation is attainable by none" (chiefly on the ground of that declaration of the Lord, who says, "Unless one be born of water, he hath not life.'" (On Baptism, 12:1, A.D. 203).

Ambrose (340?-397), “The Church was redeemed at the price of Christ's blood. Jew or Greek, it makes no difference; but if he has believed, he must circumcise himself from his sins [in baptism (Col. 2:11-12)] so that he can be saved . . . for no one ascends into the kingdom of heaven except through the sacrament of baptism . . . "Unless a man be born again of water and the Holy Spirit, he cannot enter the kingdom of God"

Is water baptism necessary for salvation?

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