Amazing isn't it? So many here, no matter what heresy, no matter if two heresies contradict one another they rush in to say they are all true.
Again, objections unsubstantiated by scripture
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Amazing isn't it? So many here, no matter what heresy, no matter if two heresies contradict one another they rush in to say they are all true.
Notice how he changed gears? He said Romans 2 was directed at(written to) Israel. Which is it? He said Paul witnessed to the Gentiles(which is true), so he can’t change midstream when we expose his faux pas, and say Romans 2 was directed at Israel. This is Les Feldick psycho-babble.
For to you it has been granted for Christ’s sake, not only to believe in Him, but also to suffer for His sake,[Philippians 1:29]
Therefore, those also who suffer according to the will of God shall entrust their souls to a faithful Creator in doing what is right.[1 Timothy 4:19]
Paul and Peter both told the same story that both Jews and Gentiles who have trusted the Christ as their Savior would suffer persecution for it. They both told the same story to their target audience.
There is only one Gospel, Galatians 1:8-10. Others and myself have given ample proof of this fact, there is no need to argue further.
One last time I will offer correction here against this heresy. It is a proven fact that there will be those who will argue for "another" "gospel" yet there is no other. There is only one. Those who insist upon another are warned in the above text.
Acts 11:18 is one proof, then there is the fact that what Peter preached on Pentecost was not, as one errantly asserts, his "Gospel for the Jews." No, no, not at all. The text clearly shows this message was preached to Jews and Gentiles present there at that time, thus his point is fallacious, a failure of contextual truth of Acts, and a failure to abide by 2 Timothy 2:15. There is one Gospel and it is everlasting, Revelation 14:6.
It is the nation of Israel that must be born again. It is not accurate to say members of the body of Christ, in this dispensation, are born again; in all of Paul's epistles being born again is never applied to members of the body of Christ.
The only thing different given to the Gentiles concerning the Gospel message being preached in those days was Acts 15:20 and Acts 15:29. Yet even these instructions had nothing to do with the Gospel of salvation. Instead these were instructions for sanctification.
The unity and proof of the Gospel message being the same for both is here: "When they heard this, they had no further objections and praised God, saying, "So then, even to Gentiles God has granted repentance that leads to life." Acts 11:18
???????
All, note ALL have sinned and come short of God's glory. (not just Jews)
As MANY as received him. to them, he gave the right to be sons of God. Nothing there about Jews.
For God so loved the WORLD (not Jews), that he gave his only begotten son so that if they believe in him they will not perish but have everlasting life.
Except a MAN, (not a Jew) be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.
But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved. (Jews only?)
And except those days should be shortened, there should no flesh be saved: but for the elect's sake (not the Jews' sake) those days shall be shortened.
He that believeth (No Jews here) and is baptized shall be saved, but he that believeth not shall be damned.
For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world; but that the world through him might be saved (No mention of Jews).
I am the door: by me, if any man (not any Jew) enter in, he shall be saved and shall go in and out, and find pasture.
And it shall come to pass, that whosoever (not Jews) shall call on the name of the Lord shall be saved.
That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved. (No mention of being a jew).
And why do members of the body of Christ need to be born again again?
And the term born again only appears ONCE in Peter's epistles and not at all in Paul's so you are on very thin ground here.
'For who maketh thee to differ from another?
and what hast thou that thou didst not receive?
now if thou didst receive it, why dost thou glory,
as if thou hadst not received it?
(1 Corinthians 4:7)
Hello @Doug,
I believe that the people who revile you here are doing so because they do not truly understand what the Body of Christ is. To them The Body and The Bride are one entity, and not two separate callings. They have not acknowledged the Divine revelation made to Paul following the laying aside of Israel in unbelief, which had until then been 'hid in God' since before the world began (Ephesians 3:9 & Colossians 1:26). So no distinction is made between Kingdom teaching and the Acts church: the church which is His (Christ's) body, and the teaching concerning it.
* They have not acknowledged that the later (prison) epistles of Paul *contain the administration of the church which is His Body, and that all prior writing of either Paul, Peter, James, John and Jude, the gospels or the Old Testament prophets have no mention of it: it not having been revealed until that revelation of God to Paul at the end of the Acts period.
* If I am wrong they must enlighten me, and forgive me for misunderstanding them: but if that is the case then they can be forgiven for making such severe accusations against you, for it is done out of ignorance.
In Christ Jesus
Chris
* Prison Epistles:- Ephesians, Philippians, Colossians, 1 & 2 Timothy, Titus and Philemon.
Thanks for the encouragement.
I must tell you I do not agree with Acts 28.
Paul revealed mystery before his prison epistles.
Free justification Romans 3:22-25
The new creature 2 Corinthians 5:17
as an example.
Here is a link to an article if you would care to read it:
Did the Church Begin in Acts 28?
Thank you, @Doug,
I appreciate you telling me. We can maybe discuss this at some point in time.
Within the love of Christ our Saviour,
Our Lord and Head.
Chris
Thank you, @Doug,
I appreciate you telling me. We can maybe discuss this at some point in time.
Within the love of Christ our Saviour,
Our Lord and Head.
Chris
Yes, Doug, I do understand. However I won't take it further here, because it will derail your thread.Forgot to say that Paul does need to be rightly divided as well to determine his audience/topic....Romans 9 thru 11 for example is about Israel
Re: replies #91 to #95 between Doug and Charity, re. Acts 28 as the dispensational boundary of this present dispensation.
Hello @Doug,
Do you want to discuss this now? as there have been no further responses to the subject of the thread itself. Or would you prefer to start a new thread? If you would like to start here, would you tell me where you believe the present dispensation began?
Thank you
In Christ Jesus
Chris
There is no enlightenment in either Hyper- or Ultra-Dispensationalism. For all intents and purposes they are the same. And they are in serious error.And now it looks like I might get further enlightenment if Charity and Doug thrash out their differences.
There is no enlightenment in either Hyper- or Ultra-Dispensationalism. For all intents and purposes they are the same. And they are in serious error.