Oh wise one, then please answer:
1.a. Are the "weeks" in the usual CONCISE Feminine Diction as found in ALL the rest of the OT; or the INCONCISE Masculine diction as found ONLY in the 9th Chapter, and not in the 10th Chapter?
1.b. If the CONCISE = 490, then does the INCONCISE ≠490?
2.a. If Daniel "perceived" in the "books" did he use the simple "shama" as though he had simply read the Book of Jeremiah; or did he use the same "biyn" where GOD gave Solomon such "biyn" (Solomon Wisdom) that no man before him and no man after him shall have such "biyn"?
2.b. And where "biyn" is Solomon Wisdom, is there a different "book" which might have an end-time interpretation (Dan. 12:4 & 9) for the "seventy" periods of time?
The plural is employed until vs 27 where the one week [the 70th] is mentioned. Thus the plural seems similar to our putting an 's' on the end of a word. 70 week(s); 7 week(s) 62 week(s) 1 week
(no s)
The 'indefinite' aspect to the words indicates to me that it's intending that the prophecy is not declared an actual week of 7 days, but is allowed to be a week of 7 years. This is the understanding and interpretation of the KJV translators and many others.
'...as Young points out, the word ‘sevens’ is in the masculine plural instead of the usual feminine plural. No clear explanation is given except that Young feels ‘it was for the deliberate purpose of calling attention to the fact that the word 'sevens' is employed in an unusual sense.’'
'...Young finally concludes after some discussion that Keil and Kliefoth are correct when they hold that the word ‘sevens’ does not necessarily mean year-weeks, but an intentionally indefinite designation of a period of time measured by the number seven, which chronological duration must be determined on other grounds.'
John Walvoord, Daniel, The Key to Prophetic Revelation, Moody Press, Chicago, 1971, p. 217
Furthermore Young proceeded to observe that this Masculine text is
only found in the 9th Chapter of Daniel, and the Feminine is used in the 10th Chapter and all other citations in Scripture.
However, none of your responses refute the Masculine text as cited by Young, Keil, & Kliefoth (as documented per Walvoord), and your "1,000s" are conspicuously absent. So for now all I can suggest is that the experts are unable to unravel the mystery of this Chapter. Does this suggest there is no answer? God forbid. There IS an answer, and both Scripture and history confirm the true fulfillment. - (from the other forum).
For me, the IMPORTANT consideration is where we are in time. Are we 20 years from Jesus' return; 10 years; 5 years? If so then why should we work while it still day when we have "all the time in the world".
Conversely, if we're ONE YEAR until we can't buy or sell; and Jesus will return 6 months subsequent, -- WE'D BETTER GET BUSY WITH THE TASKS AT HAND, and worry about the purported 24 hr day when it comes. Because we CAN PREPARE FOR THE FUTURE, but we can't change the future. So DO THE THINGS WE CAN, and leave what we can't to GOD.
That's the best thing I heard you say.
I found your other thread from 2012.
Those were some smart guys you took on.
Intellectuals.
But even reading those 20 pages, I still can't figure out what you are talking about.
I wish you would just write it out in plain English and be done with it
Your count of the weeks, and my count of the weeks are different counts.
But it brings us to this same time zone.
Where we are about now.
Spooky stuff.
Peaceful Sabbath.