CharismaticLady
Well-Known Member
Let me give you 2 important examples of how corrupt the KJV's later Greek manuscripts are:
(1) Mark originally ended at 16:8 without a resurrection appearance of Jesus. So various new endings were invented and added to fill this void, one which became the KJV ending. No modern scholar considers that ending original. Its style is completely different from Mark's and one manuscript of Mark even identifies the hoaxer as Aristo of Pella (c. 165 AD)!
(2) Origen from Alexandria (c. 220 ad) and later Caesarea in Israel visited possible sites for Gospel events. When he visited the Jordan River to learn where John baptized Jesus, the Christians there told him they didn't know where "Bethany beyond the Jordan" (John 1:28) was' and they speculated that the real place of baptism was nearby "Bethabara," an Aramaic term for "house of the crossing," and so, the Greek text on which the KJV was based changed the reading to "Bethabara." But Origin admits that early manuscripts of John in his possession read "Bethany" instead! "Bethany" can mean "house of the ferry boat" and rope ferries were used instead of bridges to cross the Jordan. We know this from ancient maps of the area. So John likely baptized Jesus near a rope ferry 50 miles north of where Origen visited, so that people from both sides of the Jordan can conveniently attend his services. There was a rope ferry near "Aenon near Salim" 50 miles north where John stayed with his disciples (
John 3:23).
What in the last 12 verses of Mark is especially abhorrent to you?