Are You In A Church Like The One Jesus Set Up?

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Brother Mike

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Sep 16, 2008
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There is not a linguist alive today that has recognized any manifestation of "tongues" when heard. It is bogus and artificial.

It's sad that linguist can't figure it out. I have heard this argument before. The thought is that Actual tongues could not be a complete language, as there are not enough words there. Being foolish of the fact we are told it is not in our understanding, let alone some linguist. It is also ignorant to say something said that sounds the same is not different in the World of the spirit. This is carnal, and natural mans thinking. It is said we spake mystery's to God, How much more a Mystery to natural man.

Jesus Is Lord
 

TallMan

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Jul 20, 2007
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Of all the instances of tongues in the Bible, only one of them (Acts 2) actually describes what is going on:
Not true, in fact there are passages that explain in more detail what is going on when a person speaks in tongues. 1 Corinthians 14 v2, 4, 14-21 especially.

the people are speaking in languages that exist on earth. Do you remember the verse? The observers marvelled that they heard each of the Christians in his own language.
The gift of tongues
No! "the gift of tongues" refers specifically to the giving of a mesage in tongues in a public meeting of the church, as detailed in 1 Corinthians 12 & 14.
Acts never calls the occurrance of tongues as "the gift of tongues" - because the Acts accounts are about people becoming meetings, not regular meetings of people who are already Christians. (This point has already been made in more detail in this thread).

is the gift to communicate across the barrier of language that existed in the first century.
No! Acts 2 shows clearly that the people that tongues was not for communicating the gospel to other people... just look at the result:

"And they were all amazed, and were in doubt, saying one to another, What meaneth this?
Others mocking said, These men are full of new wine." (vv12-13)


They were all left in doubt and confusion, not one person became a Christian or even un derstood what they needed to do to become one!
- What one would expect if you over-heard someone speaking to God, not speaking to you.
The fallacy that because people understood the language they were therefore being spoken to in tongues is an illogical leap.

If you walk down the Champs Elyses in Paris and over-hear 2 people speaking in English, do you assume they are speaking to you, because you recognise the words?
- of course not!

This is further shown by the fact that Peter stood up and spoke to the crowd in the common learned language ... then they understood and 3000 were added.

If God had moved on the disciples to preach to the crowd, how disorderly and arrogant of Peter to interrupt what God was doing!



By all Biblical indications, there is no basis for Christians babbling.

By my understanding. I am, of course, open to correction. Please show me a Biblical example of Christians babbling.
"For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries" (1 Cor. 14:2)

"if I pray in an unknown tongue, my spirit prayeth, but my understanding is unfruitful.
What is it then? I will pray with the spirit, and I will pray with the understanding also: I will sing with the spirit, and I will sing with the understanding also.
Else when thou shalt bless with the spirit, how shall he that occupieth the room of the unlearned say Amen at thy giving of thanks,
seeing he understandeth not what thou sayest?
For thou verily givest thanks well, but the other is not edified.
I thank my God, I speak with tongues more than ye all: Yet in the church I had rather speak five words with my understanding,
that by my voice I might teach others also, than ten thousand words in an unknown tongue." (vv14-19)


The main purpose of speaking in tongues was and is personal private prayer, you might call it "babbling" because the prayer doesn't understand what he/she is saying and neither would any of the brethren, the person is speaking to God, allowing the Holy Spirit to lead them beyond their limited understanding.

"the Spirit also helpeth our infirmities: for we know not what we should pray for as we ought: but the Spirit itself maketh intercession for us with groanings which cannot be uttered" (Romans 8:26)

- We don't have the words, but of course God does!

So, like all my brethren, I pray in tongues privately, but, in a meeting, I may or may not operate a "gift of tongues". The same goes for the other attributes in the "gifts" list - wisdom, knowledge, faith... (1 Cor. 12:8-12)
To use this passsage to teach that you can be a Christian without speaking in tongues is as ridiculous as saying only some Christians get each ot the other attributes listed!
 

fivesense

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Mar 7, 2010
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Not true, in fact there are passages that explain in more detail what is going on when a person speaks in tongues. 1 Corinthians 14 v2, 4, 14-21 especially.

No! "the gift of tongues" refers specifically to the giving of a mesage in tongues in a public meeting of the church, as detailed in 1 Corinthians 12 & 14.
Acts never calls the occurrance of tongues as "the gift of tongues" - because the Acts accounts are about people becoming meetings, not regular meetings of people who are already Christians. (This point has already been made in more detail in this thread).

No! Acts 2 shows clearly that the people that tongues was not for communicating the gospel to other people... just look at the result:


Ac 2:7 and they were all amazed, and did wonder, saying one unto another, 'Lo, are not all these who are speaking Galileans?

Ac 2:8 and how do we hear, each in our proper dialect, in which we were born?

Ac 2:9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and those dwelling in Mesopotamia, in Judea also, and Cappadocia, Pontus, and Asia,

Ac 2:10 Phrygia also, and Pamphylia, Egypt, and the parts of Libya, that are along Cyrene, and the strangers of Rome, both Jews and proselytes,

Ac 2:11 Cretes and Arabians, we did hear them speaking in our tongues the great things of God.'

Quite a list of folks hearing alot of different "glossia" (Greek=language)
1C 13:8 . The love doth never fail; and whether there be prophecies, they shall become useless; whether tongues, they shall cease; whether knowledge, it shall become useless;

The same word in Acts and 1Corinthians, only plural in 1Corinthians. Is it unreasonable to make the connection? With Paul coming right out and saying what the Glorified Lord of heaven spoke to him, that these things would cease down the road when the Word of God was completed through him?

I do not see the Lord anywhere on this planet, if I did, faith would be irrelevent, would it not?
So it is with the gratuities of the Spirit, if they are seen, it is to announce the coming of the King and the His Kingdom.
Israel let it slip away from them.
But, let us not believe we can apportion those things to ourselves, and usurp Israel. Not in a million years will that happen. It would turn God into a liar.
fivesense