One of the most continuous subjects on forums is James vs. Paul. This writing is on this subject.
James vs Paul in Acts 15 and 21:
When rationalizing, and using conjecture, and assumption to prove a point one way or the other you will never be able to see the truth. A rationalization, conjecture and assumption that James is saying the same thing Paul is saying, is no proof at all.
ABOUT THE GENTILES:
Acts 15:1-2
1 And certain men came down from Judea and taught the brethren, "Unless you are circumcised according to the custom of Moses, you cannot be saved."
2 Therefore, when Paul and Barnabas had no small dissension and dispute with them, they determined that Paul and Barnabas and certain others of them should go up to Jerusalem, to the apostles and elders, about this question.
(NKJ)
NOTE: The Jews were telling the Gentiles that they had to keep the Law of Moses. This being said, then the Jews who were telling Paul the Gentiles had to keep the Law of Moses, must have been those that believed Jesus to be the Messiah.
James said in Acts 15:19-20
19 "Therefore I judge that we should not trouble those from among the Gentiles who are turning to God,
20 "but that we write to them to abstain from things polluted by idols, from sexual immorality, from things strangled, and from blood.
(NKJ)
James and the elders said in Acts 15:25-29
25 it seemed good to us, being assembled with one accord, to send chosen men to you with our beloved Barnabas and Paul,
26 men who have risked their lives for the name of our Lord Jesus Christ.
27 We have therefore sent Judas and Silas, who will also report the same things by word of mouth.
28 For it seemed good to the Holy Spirit, and to us, to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things:
29 that you abstain from things offered to idols, from blood, from things strangled, and from sexual immorality. If you keep yourselves from these, you will do well. Farewell.
(NKJ)
Clearly it can be seen that James is saying that the Gentiles do not have to follow the Law of Moses. But that does not mean that ""James is saying"" that the Jews did not have to follow the Law of Moses. To think so is to make a conjecture and assumptions and to miss the truth.
What we see in the scriptures is that there was a gospel for the Jews, ""with the Law"" and a gospel for the Gentiles "without the Law." This is proven in that James says the Gentiles do not have to follow the Law of Moses but James wanted Paul to follow it. Obviously his saying that did not exempt the Jews from having to follow the Law of Moses and that is clearly seen in Acts 21 below.
************ More proof from the scriptures.
Acts 21:20-22
20 And when they heard it, they glorified the Lord. And they said to him, "You see, brother, how many myriads of Jews there are who have believed, and they are all zealous for the law;
(note that the believing Jews were zealous for the Law)
21 "but they have been informed about you that you teach all the Jews who are among the Gentiles to forsake Moses, saying that they ought not to circumcise their children nor to walk according to the customs.
22 "What then? The assembly must certainly meet, for they will hear that you have come.
(NKJ)
Since we have seen that James clearly understood that the Gentiles did not have to keep the Law it is just as clear that James was NOT saying the Jews didn't have to. James expected the Jews to keep the Law and the proof is in what James and the Elders told Paul to do.
Acts 21:24-25
24 "Take them and be purified with them, and pay their expenses so that they may shave their heads, and that all may know that those things of which they were informed concerning you are nothing, but that you yourself also walk orderly and keep the law.
25 "But concerning the Gentiles who believe, we have written and decided that they should observe no such thing, except that they should keep themselves from things offered to idols, from blood, from things strangled, and from sexual immorality."
(NKJ)
Acts 21:26-30
26 Then Paul took the men, and the next day, having been purified with them, entered the temple to announce the expiration of the days of purification, at which time an offering should be made for each one of them.
27 And when the seven days were almost ended, the Jews from Asia, seeing him in the temple, stirred up the whole crowd and laid hands on him,
28 crying out, "Men of Israel, help! This is the man who teaches all men everywhere against the people, the law, and this place; and furthermore he also brought Greeks into the temple and has defiled this holy place."
29 (For they had previously seen Trophimus the Ephesian with him in the city, whom they supposed that Paul had brought into the temple.)
30 And all the city was disturbed; and the people ran together, seized Paul, and dragged him out of the temple; and immediately the doors were shut.
31 Now as they were seeking to kill him, news came to the commander of the garrison that all Jerusalem was in an uproar.
(NKJ)
It is a fact that if James and the elders were teaching the same gospel of faith without works as Paul was teaching, they would have been persecuted just as they were persecuting Paul.
Conclusion: Clearly the scriptures show that James was not teaching the same gospel as Paul was teaching. ---- Paul's gospel clearly states, that no one will be saved by the works of the Law. Obviously, James was teaching Law or the Jews would have been upset by them as well. ---- To ignore these events is to never be able to see what James was teaching to the Jews and Paul to the Gentiles """AND"""" it wasn't the same thing.
Lately some have tried to get around what is being said in this writing by indicating that James and Paul were not using the same definition of the word “works”. When called to define the works James is talking about they can’t seem to say how they differ from the works of the Law of Moses.
James vs Paul in Acts 15 and 21:
When rationalizing, and using conjecture, and assumption to prove a point one way or the other you will never be able to see the truth. A rationalization, conjecture and assumption that James is saying the same thing Paul is saying, is no proof at all.
ABOUT THE GENTILES:
Acts 15:1-2
1 And certain men came down from Judea and taught the brethren, "Unless you are circumcised according to the custom of Moses, you cannot be saved."
2 Therefore, when Paul and Barnabas had no small dissension and dispute with them, they determined that Paul and Barnabas and certain others of them should go up to Jerusalem, to the apostles and elders, about this question.
(NKJ)
NOTE: The Jews were telling the Gentiles that they had to keep the Law of Moses. This being said, then the Jews who were telling Paul the Gentiles had to keep the Law of Moses, must have been those that believed Jesus to be the Messiah.
James said in Acts 15:19-20
19 "Therefore I judge that we should not trouble those from among the Gentiles who are turning to God,
20 "but that we write to them to abstain from things polluted by idols, from sexual immorality, from things strangled, and from blood.
(NKJ)
James and the elders said in Acts 15:25-29
25 it seemed good to us, being assembled with one accord, to send chosen men to you with our beloved Barnabas and Paul,
26 men who have risked their lives for the name of our Lord Jesus Christ.
27 We have therefore sent Judas and Silas, who will also report the same things by word of mouth.
28 For it seemed good to the Holy Spirit, and to us, to lay upon you no greater burden than these necessary things:
29 that you abstain from things offered to idols, from blood, from things strangled, and from sexual immorality. If you keep yourselves from these, you will do well. Farewell.
(NKJ)
Clearly it can be seen that James is saying that the Gentiles do not have to follow the Law of Moses. But that does not mean that ""James is saying"" that the Jews did not have to follow the Law of Moses. To think so is to make a conjecture and assumptions and to miss the truth.
What we see in the scriptures is that there was a gospel for the Jews, ""with the Law"" and a gospel for the Gentiles "without the Law." This is proven in that James says the Gentiles do not have to follow the Law of Moses but James wanted Paul to follow it. Obviously his saying that did not exempt the Jews from having to follow the Law of Moses and that is clearly seen in Acts 21 below.
************ More proof from the scriptures.
Acts 21:20-22
20 And when they heard it, they glorified the Lord. And they said to him, "You see, brother, how many myriads of Jews there are who have believed, and they are all zealous for the law;
(note that the believing Jews were zealous for the Law)
21 "but they have been informed about you that you teach all the Jews who are among the Gentiles to forsake Moses, saying that they ought not to circumcise their children nor to walk according to the customs.
22 "What then? The assembly must certainly meet, for they will hear that you have come.
(NKJ)
Since we have seen that James clearly understood that the Gentiles did not have to keep the Law it is just as clear that James was NOT saying the Jews didn't have to. James expected the Jews to keep the Law and the proof is in what James and the Elders told Paul to do.
Acts 21:24-25
24 "Take them and be purified with them, and pay their expenses so that they may shave their heads, and that all may know that those things of which they were informed concerning you are nothing, but that you yourself also walk orderly and keep the law.
25 "But concerning the Gentiles who believe, we have written and decided that they should observe no such thing, except that they should keep themselves from things offered to idols, from blood, from things strangled, and from sexual immorality."
(NKJ)
Acts 21:26-30
26 Then Paul took the men, and the next day, having been purified with them, entered the temple to announce the expiration of the days of purification, at which time an offering should be made for each one of them.
27 And when the seven days were almost ended, the Jews from Asia, seeing him in the temple, stirred up the whole crowd and laid hands on him,
28 crying out, "Men of Israel, help! This is the man who teaches all men everywhere against the people, the law, and this place; and furthermore he also brought Greeks into the temple and has defiled this holy place."
29 (For they had previously seen Trophimus the Ephesian with him in the city, whom they supposed that Paul had brought into the temple.)
30 And all the city was disturbed; and the people ran together, seized Paul, and dragged him out of the temple; and immediately the doors were shut.
31 Now as they were seeking to kill him, news came to the commander of the garrison that all Jerusalem was in an uproar.
(NKJ)
It is a fact that if James and the elders were teaching the same gospel of faith without works as Paul was teaching, they would have been persecuted just as they were persecuting Paul.
Conclusion: Clearly the scriptures show that James was not teaching the same gospel as Paul was teaching. ---- Paul's gospel clearly states, that no one will be saved by the works of the Law. Obviously, James was teaching Law or the Jews would have been upset by them as well. ---- To ignore these events is to never be able to see what James was teaching to the Jews and Paul to the Gentiles """AND"""" it wasn't the same thing.
Lately some have tried to get around what is being said in this writing by indicating that James and Paul were not using the same definition of the word “works”. When called to define the works James is talking about they can’t seem to say how they differ from the works of the Law of Moses.