The Absolute Equality of Jesus With The Father
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John 1:1
In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.
Where did I misapply it? Are you able to read my mind? What happened to living by faith? Faith is not knowledge, is it?
"Now faith is the substance of things hoped for, the evidence of things not seen" Heb 11:1
You say that "in the Godhead the three person are 100% co-equal, co-essential and co-eternal" as if that were a fact known by God rather than something which you believe. Where did you move from faith to knowledge?
In any case, the greatest and most important thing is Not knowledge as it certainly comes in at a lower place than love/charity, does it not?
"And though I have the gift of prophecy, and understand all mysteries, and all knowledge; and though I have all faith, so that I could remove mountains, and have not charity [love], I am nothing." I Cor 13:2
"And now abideth faith, hope, charity [love], these three; but the greatest of these is charity [love]" I Cor 13:13
If you must then contend for what you believe by faith, but be very slow to call it or to treat it as knowledge. God knows, but do not the rest us live by faith?
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
Not this crap again. The Word is the word of God (not Jesus). See Deuteronomy 18:15-18.
Noticed you just ignore the inequality.
Except for all the exceptions, there are no exceptions.
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
Are we lost for lack of knowledge of Greek? I once met a man from Nicaragua, a godly man, who served God closely. He spoke only Spanish, but he was completely illiterate in even his own human language. His testimony was real and powerful. [I do speak, read and understand Spanish.] Does this man have no hope because he is illiterate? Will we be given a theology test to determine our eligibility for eternal Life?
"And whosoever liveth and believeth in me shall never die. Believest thou this?" John 11:26
Do you believe that the Bible teaches that God is a Trinity? If so, what does this mean?
I ask because the New Testament was written in Greek and not English.
You wrote, "The Word is the word of God"
For this to be true, then John would have written, "“καὶ θεὸῦ ἦν ὁ λόγος”. But he actually wrote, “καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος”. The former is "of God", and the latter "God". Further, in the previous sentence John writes, “καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν”. John here uses the Greek preposition, “πρὸς”, which shows a distinction between, “ὁ λόγος”, and “τὸν θεόν”, as this preposition has the meaning of, “face to face with”, “in the presence of”. Quite impossible for “ὁ λόγος” and “τὸν θεόν”, being on and the same Person. Here we have the teaching of the “UniPersonal” God of the Bible. The ONLY way that the Greek can be translated, is,
“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.”
They are not separate but distinct; even according to the creeds.
Also the Greek word "kai", which is translated as "and", can also be translated as "even"
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What then is the Word become flesh (John 1:14)?
I think that 1 John 4:1-3, 2 John 1:7 is clear that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh.
Comparing that to John 1:14, I do believe that the scriptures are teaching us that Jesus is the Word.
No, I believe that men have found verses which support it. It is one of those many things that Catholics held prior to the Reformation. Most of the reformers carried a lot of those things with them and never seriously questioned them. My own starting place once I arrived there is at the bottom, the lowest room [Luke 14:10] with nothing. I still go there regularly, daily hopefully, and allow God to lift me up to a higher place at His discretion. Only God gives us any real increase!
Yes; and in Psalms 50:1 (kjv), the Mighty God is identified as the LORD (Jehovah).
Also, Isaiah 9:6 says that the name of the son that was given shall be called "The everlasting Father".
That proves that Jesus is God.
But in case you want to still say that He is a Person separate (rather than distinct) from the Father, consider that in order to do so, you have to change the wording of this scripture, as it is quoted in the kjv, not once, but twice.
Charity, "rejoices not in iniquity (unsound doctrine) but rejoices in the truth" (1 Corinthians 13:6)
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you are right, I have corrected this as "distinct". What is your point in taking "kai", as "even"?
To apply it as and/even and therefore distinction rather than separation.
I have already made this point in the OP, that the Two are "distnict", the other time I used "separate" I have now corrected. Also, the Name in Isaiah 9:6, "The Everlasting Father", does not make Jesus Christ and the Father the same Person. The Hebrew is "Father of eternity", the One Who possesses eternity, and is the source of all life.
@justbyfaith
But then as Pilate asked,
"... What is truth?..." John 18:38
He asked the question of the Truth not being able to see what was right in front of his natural eyes. We need to love the Truth, which Jesus is, even when we cannot yet see him clearly. Are babies in Christ in iniquity? When and how does one switch from milk to meat?
But then as Pilate asked,
"... What is truth?..." John 18:38
He asked the question of the Truth not being able to see what was right in front of his natural eyes. We need to love the Truth, which Jesus is, even when we cannot yet see him clearly. Are babies in Christ in iniquity? When and how does one switch from milk to meat?
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