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Paul says "doers of the Law" will be justified, and repaid eternal life, and then cites Gentile believers as "doers of the Law" (Ro 2:6-16, 26, 27); those who serve not in the oldness of the Letter of the Law but in newness of the Spirit of Grace fulfill the righteous requirement of the Law (Ro...

Yeah, if you obey, that's God's righteousness; if not, that's your own unrighteousness (even if it is "righteousness of your own"). Anything that is not of faith is sin, and you're condemned for sinning, but whatever is of faith is God/God's righteousness/grace, not you/your righteousness/works...

Yep, the Jews were "saved" from slavery by the blood of lambs at Passover, but, afterward, became "reprobate" because of sin--Paul says the same could happen to him and all Christians (1 Co 9:27-10:11), despite having already been "saved" by the blood of Christ "our Passover Lamb".

Please clarify your point.

I stand by my arguments.

"Believe" is a "command", but it is not a "command" of the Law, so, no, "believing" cannot be a "work" of the Law, it is just how grace saves--if you want to disagree, again, it renders Paul incoherent when he contrasts "works" and "faith" (Ro 3:27, 4:4,5), which "righteousness of faith" is...

The Law never said "believe in Christ", it said "do this good thing, don't do that bad thing" (as it is "the knowledge of good and evil"), so "faith in Christ" doesn't fall under the category of a "work" of the Law--and, again, to this point, Paul distinguishes between "faith" and "works", so...

Well, yes, it is a "condition" that you believe to be saved--and Hebrews even warns about falling away from the faith after having already believed (Heb 3:5-19).

"Law of Faith" (Ro 3:27) means "God requires you to believe", hence the phrase "obedience of faith" (ro 1:5), and "faith is counted as righteousness" (I did the thing God wanted me to do") (Ro 4:5). Not sure in what corner of the internet this is supposed to be "controversial". Who actually...

I used to think that way--and I really wish it were that simple--but I've seen FGTs with real grace (and many without it), so I have changed my mind. I've seen it with FGTs--they tend to have no control or interest in controlling their behavior or words, but it's by no means a rule.

Paul distinguishes between faith and works, so, no, what you are asserting is incoherent.

Even if "God commands all men to believe", Paul distinguishes between faith and works, so, no, what you are saying is incoherent.

"Salvation" : the Israelites were "saved" from slavery in Egypt through Passover, and we were "saved" from slavery to satan in his kingdom through "Christ our Passover", yet the Israelites sinned after salvation, and became "reprobates", which Paul says can happen to us (1 Co 9:27 - 1 Co 10:11)...

Or maybe neither of the commands listed in 1 Jn 3:23,24 qualify as "works" : "works" corresponds to "a righteousness of my own", whereas "Grace through faith" corresponds to "the righteousness of God". Paul says "I was abundant in labors above them all, yet not I, but the grace with me", and...

This is why I like discussion : I can outsource help to find my errors, so I can improve.

You raise a good point : the giving of thanks is only said to follow the eating of food--even when Paul eats the food in 1 Co, he gives thanks--not after other acts of faith. Therefore, it seems giving of thanks really is because of the food itself. I had something else in mind, bc of the...

Sounds similar to the conclusion of the OP. Thanks

Question : Why does the person "give thanks" after he walks in his conviction? I wanted to discuss this aspect of the Gospel (the Gospel is the power of God, because "in it the righteousness of God is revealed from faith to faith"--contrasted against "a form of godliness, but denying the power...

So, to me, the "sin nature" is "the body of sin", "the outer man".

As a result of Adam's sin, we inherit tainted/defiled flesh. Sin's Law is in the flesh, and Sin works its own works in our inward members before we are saved.