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That user is incorrect. Sin is defined as "slavery". Who is being "enslaved"? The inward man. Spiritual slavery. That's why our salvation was typed by the Jews' salvation from slavery. Ours by the blood of the Lamb, theirs by the blood of lambs. What happens is Sin in the outward man enslaves...

K Yeah "body of sin", the outer man in which there is Sin's Law, should be the "sin nature" that was done away with when we died with Christ.

1. I responded to the article, and why I disagreed, in #1442. 2. The "Got Questions" article : "We don’t lose our sin nature once we receive Christ. The Bible says that sin remains in us and that a struggle with that old nature will continue as long as we are in this world. Paul bemoaned his...

@GodsGrace "The circumcision made without hands" refers to the anti-type to circumcision, the removal of the body of sin, which happened through dying with Christ--the death of the outward man, the body.

Romans 7 17But now, no longer am I the one doing it, but sin that dwells in me. ... 20But if I do the very thing I do not want, I am no longer the one doing it, but sin that dwells in me.

Remember the Law says defiled earthenware cannot be purged, but must be destroyed, whereas metallic vessels can be purged--the inner man can be purged, but the outer man, formed from the dust, must be destroyed.

(Romans 7:1-6 is a rejoinder to Romans 6:14.)

Close--he is wrong in wanting to say that the "sinful nature" is the inner person, because he doesn't realize that Paul's argument is the reason the Jewish believer is free from the Law is because they PHYSICALLY DIE ("you died to the Law through the body of Christ", "I've been crucified with...

Please understand that the "body of sin", "the outward man", as I understand it, and your desire to emphasize sin's power and presence over "my inner man" are not at all at odds : the claim I'm making about the body of sin is that the inward man is enslaved by the irretrievably defiled body of...

Again, my view is supported not merely by individual words here and there, but by entire passages (eg, entirety of Ro 7), and Biblical typology. You may not enjoy my explanation, but, bc it's literally just Scripture, there is no better one--and I would challenge you to work toward debunking...

1. The Passion Translation is more of a paraphrase, like "The Message", so its wording is more poetic, artistic license. 2. Ro 6:6 says "the body of sin", and Ro 7 says we died, so we know "the body of sin", "my outward man", is the physical body which the Law indicates is impossible to purge...

Paul says in Ro 6:6 "the body of sin" and in Ro 7 "this body of death" (sin leads to death so these are synonymous). The body is the body of sin. The Law says if a clay vessel is defiled it cannot be cleansed and must be destroyed instead. We were irrevocably defiled by Adam's sin (speculating...

Paul says sin caused him to sin it wasn't him in in Ro 7; 1 Co 15 he says the same is true after salvation. About Ro 7:1-6 : he says believing Jews are set free because they died, meaning they are both the wife and the husband in Paul's picture there.

In other words, just as we don't do good in Christ, so, also, sinners don't sin when they're in sin. No, he wasn't right, because his understanding of the text renders Paul incoherent.

1. I try very hard to follow closely with Scripture--to a degree even my Jesuit step father says "it can't be that tight" when I explain Ro 7:1-6 2. He We are born spiritually alive, but with the body of sin, and we die when the body of sin kills us after we come to the age of accountability...

I blocked that user bc I found they weren't interested in following reason--there's no amount of reason you could use with them to persuade them of the truth, bc they're wedded to their own thoughts.

They say you can deny Christ, worship other things, do human sacrifices, and still be saved.

I want to talk with a FGT about FGT. You are not FGT. I am not interacting with your views here (Universalism, etc).

OK Thanks for clarifying, because I wanted to interact with FGTs about their views.

So, IF grace through faith COULD go away, then salvation COULD be lost, but, in reality, grace through faith CAN NEVER go away, therefore salvation CAN NEVER / WILL NEVER be lost?