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What does that have to do with the rest of scripture which speaks of God plural? Or in the OT where the God of Israel claims to be sent by the father and the spirit? please read what I said, I said if John 1 is all you have you have. Weak argument,

If this is all you have, You have a weak argument The triunity of God is found by taking all of scripture. Not a few verses in John 1. As for with God.. The greek word means in the presence of. It would not make sense to say he was God twice. yawn. been here done that with you, continue in...

If this is all you have, You have a weak argument The triunity of God is found by taking all of scripture. Not a few verses in John 1. As for with God.. The greek word means in the presence of. It would not make sense to say he was God twice.

Nope. Those promises concern a plot of land in the middle east. and Peace if they follow God from all their enemies The church was never promised anything like this.

Rom 11: 25 For I do not desire, brethren, that you should be ignorant of this mystery, lest you should be wise in your own opinion, that blindness in part has happened to Israel until the fullness of the Gentiles has come in. 26 And so all Israel will be saved, as it is written: “The Deliverer...

I never heard anyone ever say the word under means condemned by. So again not sure if your argument

I do not see why you think this the law condemns whoever does not fulfill it, which means only Christ would not be condemned by it grace is a term of saving the condemned so yur thinking is flawed, the law condemns people No one is threaded to be condemned under grace,

I think condemned by the law is accurate. Because whoever is under law must be perfect. Only Christ met that standard. Hence all who are under the law are cursed (gal 3) Under grace would mean we are under favor. Which is unmerited. In other words. The curse is removed. even though we still...

I never stated there was no authorities over us, My argument was against the thinking that we MUST obey them no matter what.

What rule? So if a pastor tells a married woman to undress and have sex with him, is she required to obey him? And is she is sin if she does not? He is her authority correct?

I don't agree that we are to obey them no matter what. Nor do I think this is what scripture teaches

I like what I learned as a youngin in church Before salvation we were dichotomous beings, We possessed a body and soul, but our spirit was dead After salvation we became trichotomous beings, As our spirit, which was dead. was made alive.

I never said that, You can’t hear, because you don’t want to

This is the most ridiculous thing I have ever heard, you will do anything to deny the truth won’t you? Being baptized in Christ death is where our sins are washed, being baptized into Christ means we are placed in him. I believe I must do as another person did and back out. There is nothing...

You don’t obey acts 2. You twist it to you own understanding and I just pray not to your own damnation

What frightening is you adding water to Romans 6 romans 6 is God himself baptizing us into Christ and his death. There is no water involved, it does not say for we have been baptized in water into Christ it says we were baptized Into Christ. (Christ is the agent we were baptized into, much...

Whatever you replace the work of God with the work of man. Blaspheme the Hs. Good luck

Does your pastor have the power to baptize me into Christ's death? Or does God have that power?

You never answered why Repent and be baptized are two different types of verbs spoken in two forms. Until you do. You have nothing.

Actually we are buried INTO christ By Baptism. (christ is the baptizing agent, not water)