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It is very clear that the words in verse 16 is Yahweh. As are the words in the verses before. None are Isaiah

it does matter, because this passage clearly Teaches that Jesus Christ is Yahweh, as the Father is, and that the Multi-Personal God is in the Old Testament, and not a Christian invention, as some assume!

the sinner is converted the moment they repent of their sins!

the translation that you quote for Isaiah 48:16, is NOT what the Hebrew says, and is therefore theological HERESY!

This is NOT even represented by what the Hebrew actually says! Anyone can translate as they like, according to their warped heresies! The Hebrew, Greek OT, and Latin Vulgate, read: “ועתה אדני יהוה שׁלחני ורוחו׃” (Hebrew) "καὶ νῦν κύριος ἀπέσταλκέν με καὶ τὸ πνεῦμα αὐτοῦ" (LXX) "et nunc...

The words spoken in chapter 48 of Isaiah till verse 16, are those by One Who is The Creator, and knows all things, and Who was Sent by Another Who is Yahweh the Lord, Who also sent His Spirit It is clear from the Bible, that the Prophet Isaiah never speaks of himself as the Creator, nor one who...

The Speaker cannot be the Prophet Isaiah. The words spoken in this passage can only belong to someone Who is Himself Yahweh, as He Speaks in the first and not third Person When it is Isaiah who is speaking on behalf of the Lord, it is usual for him to use the words, "thus saith the Lord", which...

Who is The Speaker in Isaiah 48:16? “Come near to Me, listen to this: From the beginning I have not spoken in secret, From the time it took place, I was there. And now the Lord God has sent Me, and His Spirit.” The Speaker in this verse, and the passage, is distinct from “Yah·weh ’ă·ḏō·nāy”...

Jesus Christ Ton Prōtotokon Jesus Christ is called “The Firstborn”, in the New Testament. This term has been totally misused by those who oppose Jesus Christ as Almighty God, and coequal with God the Father, in the Eternal Godhead. These are those, like the Jehovah's Witnesses, who use, or...

https://www.icr.org/article/young-earth/

What you say here is based on an ignorance of Greek grammar! John wrote "θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος" by design, because he could not have written "ὁ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος". Those who render this Greek as "and the Word was a god", do so because of their theology on the Person of Jesus Christ, and has nothing to...

the Hebrew adjective translated in some Bible versions as "evil", is "raʻ", which has various meanings: "distress, adversity, giving pain, unhappiness, misery, disaster". It does not always mean EVIL. The God of the Holy Bible CANNOT be the author of wickedness, evil, sin, wrong-doing...

God ALLOWED sin, He DID NOT DETERMINE it!!! You have a different GOD to the One of the Holy Bible!

This has got nothing to do with the Greek article used by Paul to show God's special love for the elect. The grammar says nothing of that

Says you who hasn't got a clue about Greek grammar :rolleyes:

This is your theology and has ZERO to do with the Greek! Typical misuse of the Bible by the so called reformed

And you are DECEIVED!

then God is the AUTHOR OF SIN! and CANNOT be Holy, Just, Righteous, etc, etc!!! what you are saying is the HIGHEST BLASPHEMY!

complete RUBBISH! You know ZERO about Greek grammar! The use of the article is NOT used here for EXCLUSIVENESS!!!

Like taking PLEASURE in the fall of mankind as taught by the Reformed WCF!!! Which is BLASPHEMY!