1 Cor. 7:13-14

  • Welcome to Christian Forums, a Christian Forum that recognizes that all Christians are a work in progress.

    You will need to register to be able to join in fellowship with Christians all over the world.

    We hope to see you as a part of our community soon and God Bless!

charity

Well-Known Member
Nov 26, 2017
3,234
3,192
113
75
UK
Faith
Christian
Country
United Kingdom
'And the woman which hath an husband that believeth not, and if he be pleased to dwell with her, let her not leave him. For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.'
(1 Cor 7:13-14)

I have read that this has a ceremonial application. Presumably to the believing Jew in this assembly. Can you help me to understand this? Does it have an application today? I would appreciate your input.

Thank you
charity
 

amadeus

Well-Known Member
Jan 26, 2008
22,479
31,616
113
80
Oklahoma
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
If you are already married at the time you first met the Master and became a believer, but your spouse did not become a believer, then the verse would apply to you.
 

charity

Well-Known Member
Nov 26, 2017
3,234
3,192
113
75
UK
Faith
Christian
Country
United Kingdom
For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.'
(1 Cor 7:13-14)

Thank you, @amadeus,

I have heard believers say that an unbelieving partner is sanctified, or 'set apart' by being joined in matrimony to a believing partner. That the children of that relationship are to be considered to be 'holy' before God.

Surely salvation before God is an individual matter, not influenced by being joined to one who is? The children too, will each have to come to God for salvation individually, regardless of having a believing parent.

Salvation is not the issue here is it? So how are we to understand it?

Grace and peace.
charity
 
Last edited:

jimd

Active Member
Oct 14, 2017
144
73
28
84
catawissa
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.'
(1 Cor 7:13-14)

Thank you, @amadeus,

I have heard believers say that an unbelieving partner is sanctified, or 'set apart' by being joined in matrimony to a believing partner. That the children of that relationship are to be considered to be 'holy' before God.

Surely salvation before God is an individual matter, not influenced by being joined to one who is? The children too, will each have to come to God for salvation individually, regardless of having a believing parent.

Salvation is not the issue here is it? So how are we to understand it?

In Christ Jesus
charity
Right, the unbelieving are sanctified in the marriage, not in salvation.
 
  • Like
Reactions: Helen

charity

Well-Known Member
Nov 26, 2017
3,234
3,192
113
75
UK
Faith
Christian
Country
United Kingdom
For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.'
(1 Cor 7:13-14)

Looking in a book I have on the early and pastoral epistles of Paul, I read, in relation to this verse, that, the uncleanness is a ceremonial uncleanness and Haggai 2:11-13 is referred to as an example:-

'Thus saith the LORD of hosts;
'Ask now the priests concerning the law, saying,
"If one bear holy flesh in the skirt of his garment,
and with his skirt do touch bread, or pottage, or wine,
or oil, or any meat, shall it be holy?"

And the priests answered and said, "No."
Then said Haggai,
"If one that is unclean by a dead body touch any of these, shall it be unclean?"
And the priests answered and said, "It shall be unclean."

In Old Testament times, a Jew, being joined in marriage to a foreigner, would have resulted in uncleanness, and being cut-off from the covenant relationship. Paul is now saying that the principle of uncleanness, does not apply in the case of 1 Cor. 7:13-14, and there was always the possibility that the believing partner may be instrumental in the salvation of her unbelieving partner.

This would seem therefore to have no application in a gentile relationship.

Sorry to have troubled you.
Grace and peace,
charity
 

EndTimeWine

Active Member
Nov 5, 2017
415
69
28
52
Albany
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.'
(1 Cor 7:13-14)

Thank you, @amadeus,

I have heard believers say that an unbelieving partner is sanctified, or 'set apart' by being joined in matrimony to a believing partner. That the children of that relationship are to be considered to be 'holy' before God.

Surely salvation before God is an individual matter, not influenced by being joined to one who is? The children too, will each have to come to God for salvation individually, regardless of having a believing parent.

Salvation is not the issue here is it? So how are we to understand it?

In Christ Jesus
charity
Understand it as it is said (1Corinthians7:13-14) it is not rocket science. Are you questioning the unfathomable Mercy of God? In Marriage two become ONE FLESH, nothing complicated there. The children are the product of the one ONE FLESH, nothing complicated about that. The only complication is your lack of belief in that. This 1Corinthian chapter also states that if the non-believer wishes to leave let him leave. And better than that , it also states do not be YOKED together with a non-believer. Sometimes people are already married and ONLY one partner comes to faith in the Lord. That partners faith sanctifies the family. Now your problem is SANCTIFICATION vs SALVATION . Sanctification applies to the non-believer who does not hinder the faithfuls worship and chooses to stay with their spouse. This means they accept their spouses salvation which comes from Christ. Sanctified persons unknowingly comply when they do Not interfere, therefore remain enjoined in one flesh. SANCTIFIED and Saved! God Bless!
 
Last edited:

amadeus

Well-Known Member
Jan 26, 2008
22,479
31,616
113
80
Oklahoma
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband: else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.'
(1 Cor 7:13-14)

Thank you, @amadeus,

I have heard believers say that an unbelieving partner is sanctified, or 'set apart' by being joined in matrimony to a believing partner. That the children of that relationship are to be considered to be 'holy' before God.

Surely salvation before God is an individual matter, not influenced by being joined to one who is? The children too, will each have to come to God for salvation individually, regardless of having a believing parent.

Salvation is not the issue here is it? So how are we to understand it?

Grace and peace.
charity
The issue is really whether you are willing as a follower of Jesus to remain with you unbelieving spouse as a living witness to him/her? I knew a lady who did that. He physically and verbally abused her because of the stand she took for Jesus. She would never report his abuse to the police. I know about it because she was close to my wife and my wife told me. This continued for years but finally as of the last report received her husband went to church and repented and became a great asset in God's Church.

Perhaps God would not require a person to go through that, but each person must follow God for his/herself as he/she understands His call to that person...
 

101G

Well-Known Member
Jul 20, 2012
12,259
3,385
113
Mobile, Al.
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
GINOLJC, to all.
I have heard believers say that an unbelieving partner is sanctified, or 'set apart' by being joined in matrimony to a believing partner. That the children of that relationship are to be considered to be 'holy' before God.
not saying that you're right or wrong, but consider this. who said that the children is from a union of this marriage of husband and wife?. they could have had children before they was married, from a previous marriage. and two, was this marriage in an espouse stage, before actual consummation of the marriage. I say this based on two things. 1. there was in the Corinthians church a man (son) having his Father wife. which means the son was not his father wife biological mother, but a step mother. 2. a marriage can be ended if it's in an espouse stage, remember Joseph and Mary case, when Mary, who was espouse to Joseph and he was going to put here away privately. so there are conditions that can be met in a marriage, as in fornication. if this is in an espouse stage, and not in a consummated stage. read the gospels and see what the Lord Jesus says about these two types of marriages, and the conditions that comes with them.

so I suggest one read these verses again, very carefully, before we make a judgment call on either stage or state, or conditions of these Marriages.


Maybe a re-read of this post is need for clarity
Peace in Christ Yeshua.
 

mjrhealth

Well-Known Member
Mar 15, 2009
11,810
4,090
113
Australia
Faith
Christian
Country
Australia
n Marriage two become ONE FLESH
There is so much more to this as applies to Christ and His bride, When we come to Christ, we receive the Spirit of God, His Seed, just as a man plants his seed in a woman, for we who are His Bride, are the woman in the Spirit, and so we are than"married" joined, and two become as one, in the Spirit, when we abide in Him , He will abide in us. And a new creation we have just become...

I have you in teh palm of my Hand....
 

FHII

Well-Known Member
Apr 9, 2011
4,833
2,494
113
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
I can offer a bit of historical viewpoints which won't answer the queation, but may give a little light for understanding.

I have read 4 or 5 books dealing with Christianity in the first 2 centuries in the Roman Empire. They were library books, so its going to be hard for me to give reference.

Two things jump out at me from my studies: the first is the overall care and concern for fellow Christians. Its in the Bible and Christians followed it. Escecially in cities, plagues were rampant. Many people died, but Christians died as a redult of the plagues significantly less.

It wasn't really "supernatural" but more a result of following what was taught. Christians nursed each other and they recovered.

The second is more to the point. Women had a profound impact on the growth of Christianity. Men where not around to hear a preacher. Especially so with soldiers. But overall men had little time or energy to hear the gospel. And many of them like sodiers weren't in the vecinity.

Yet women were and they (while busy themselves) had the time and proximity to learn. Thus, when the husbands returned they learned too through rhe wife.

Don't kill the messanger. This is just tje theory Ive heard from recent historians. I can access. My reading list and give references if you like.

But I will say that the tjeory does have some merit and rhis knowledge may shed some light on the passages.
 

charity

Well-Known Member
Nov 26, 2017
3,234
3,192
113
75
UK
Faith
Christian
Country
United Kingdom
For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife,
and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband:
else were your children unclean;
but now are they holy.'

(1 Cor 7:13-14)

@amadeus
@jimd
@EndTimeWine
@101G
@mjrhealth
@FHll

Thank you for your input, I will consider the points you have raised.

In Christ Jesus
our risen and glorified
Saviour, Lord and Head.
charity
 
  • Like
Reactions: amadeus

charity

Well-Known Member
Nov 26, 2017
3,234
3,192
113
75
UK
Faith
Christian
Country
United Kingdom
The issue of the OP was with the unbelieving partner, either wife or husband, being said to be 'sanctified' by being joined in marriage to a believer. Also that the children of this unequal relationship were to be considered, 'holy', because they had a believing parent.

I believe now that this 'sanctification', and this 'holiness' was a matter of ceremonial 'cleanliness' in regard to law. Which would seem to indicate that this had application to a relationship between a Jew who was a believer in the Lord Jesus Christ, and a Jew who did not believe, for only they were under the law still during the Acts period when 1 Corinthians was written. The Gentiles that had been grafted into Israel, were never under law, so surely the matter of 'cleanness' was not an issue for them.

To say, as one has, that I am guilty of unbelief regarding this verse (1 Cor.7:13-14) is wrong, I am merely seeking to understand it.

In Christ Jesus
charity
 

EndTimeWine

Active Member
Nov 5, 2017
415
69
28
52
Albany
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
The issue of the OP was with the unbelieving partner, either wife or husband, being said to be 'sanctified' by being joined in marriage to a believer. Also that the children of this unequal relationship were to be considered, 'holy', because they had a believing parent.

I believe now that this 'sanctification', and this 'holiness' was a matter of ceremonial 'cleanliness' in regard to law. Which would seem to indicate that this had application to a relationship between a Jew who was a believer in the Lord Jesus Christ, and a Jew who did not believe, for only they were under the law still during the Acts period when 1 Corinthians was written. The Gentiles that had been grafted into Israel, were never under law, so surely the matter of 'cleanness' was not an issue for them.

To say, as one has, that I am guilty of unbelief regarding this verse (1 Cor.7:13-14) is wrong, I am merely seeking to understand it.

In Christ Jesus
charity
It was written to Corinthians this was in Greece , today it is called Archaia Korinthos. Paul was talking to Gentiles primarily, though there were Jews that lived there, this was a small amount. Paul was primarily a Jew for the gentiles and much of what he wrote addressed issues concerning them. Many gentiles who converted were still married to pagans not Jew. So this had nothing to do with law. These people were married under gentile laws, and Paul still advised them to stay with their non believing partner. And simply by the one partner giving his or herself to Christ the other was sanctified through him or her. This had nothing to do with Jewish law. It certainly could apply to any Jew as well, but was written primarily to gentile converts. God Bless!
 

charity

Well-Known Member
Nov 26, 2017
3,234
3,192
113
75
UK
Faith
Christian
Country
United Kingdom
It was written to Corinthians this was in Greece , today it is called Archaia Korinthos. Paul was talking to Gentiles primarily, though there were Jews that lived there, this was a small amount. Paul was primarily a Jew for the gentiles and much of what he wrote addressed issues concerning them. Many gentiles who converted were still married to pagans not Jew. So this had nothing to do with law. These people were married under gentile laws, and Paul still advised them to stay with their non believing partner. And simply by the one partner giving his or herself to Christ the other was sanctified through him or her. This had nothing to do with Jewish law. It certainly could apply to any Jew as well, but was written primarily to gentile converts. God Bless!
@EndTimeWine

Thank you for your input, E.T.M. but through my reading concerning 1 Corinthians, the Corinthian assembly was made up largely of Jews. To whom the matter of ceremonial cleanliness was a requirement of the law.

Respectfully
In Christ Jesus.
Chris
 

EndTimeWine

Active Member
Nov 5, 2017
415
69
28
52
Albany
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
@EndTimeWine

Thank you for your input, E.T.M. but through my reading concerning 1 Corinthians, the Corinthian assembly was made up largely of Jews. To whom the matter of ceremonial cleanliness was a requirement of the law.

Respectfully
In Christ Jesus.
Chris
The assembly was , but it was also for the gentiles to receive understanding. The Jews are who the Word was received by, the gentiles the recipients. And what difference does that make to a universal law of marriage? In Christ we are called to sanctification whether Jew or Gentile. The Christian Jews , Paul especially.....sought to bring gentiles into the fold. And he basically said, concerning the Jew's laws of cleanliness, the gentiles are not bound to =circumcision , kosher food, ex... They are bound to Christ who is the fulfillment of the Law. The Jews wanted to impose these laws to the point that if a gentile would not adhere he could not be a Christian. Paul set them straight. So what is the point of your post? Are you in a similar situation?
 

charity

Well-Known Member
Nov 26, 2017
3,234
3,192
113
75
UK
Faith
Christian
Country
United Kingdom
The assembly was , but it was also for the gentiles to receive understanding. The Jews are who the Word was received by, the gentiles the recipients. And what difference does that make to a universal law of marriage? In Christ we are called to sanctification whether Jew or Gentile. The Christian Jews , Paul especially.....sought to bring gentiles into the fold. And he basically said, concerning the Jew's laws of cleanliness, the gentiles are not bound to =circumcision , kosher food, ex... They are bound to Christ who is the fulfillment of the Law. The Jews wanted to impose these laws to the point that if a gentile would not adhere he could not be a Christian. Paul set them straight. So what is the point of your post? Are you in a similar situation?

For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife,
and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband:
else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.'

(1 Cor 7:13-14)

@EndTimeWine

I agree that Paul was the Apostle to the Gentiles, but during the period covered by the Acts Israel had prior place, and came first. The first place Paul visited when entering a town was the synagogue. Corinth was no exception for he reasoned every Sabbath to both Jews and Greeks that Jesus was the Christ (Acts 18:4-5) and it was not until they opposed him and blasphemed, that he turned to the Gentiles in Corinth, and spoke to them directly. The Lord Himself appeared to Paul in a vision at Corinth, to encourage and reassure him, telling Paul that He had - 'much people in that city'.(Acts 18:8-9).
Quote:EndTimeWine:
And what difference does that make to a universal law of marriage?
What universal law of marriage are you referring to, E.T.W.? The Gentile had never been under the law of Sinai, that they should need instruction regarding it, had they?

* You ask me what the point of my question was? I simply wanted to understand what it meant: I have no personal reason for asking.
* Thank you for taking the time to consider this, and to make a response.

In Christ Jesus
Chris
 

EndTimeWine

Active Member
Nov 5, 2017
415
69
28
52
Albany
Faith
Christian
Country
United States
For the unbelieving husband is sanctified by the wife,
and the unbelieving wife is sanctified by the husband:
else were your children unclean; but now are they holy.'

(1 Cor 7:13-14)

@EndTimeWine

I agree that Paul was the Apostle to the Gentiles, but during the period covered by the Acts Israel had prior place, and came first. The first place Paul visited when entering a town was the synagogue. Corinth was no exception for he reasoned every Sabbath to both Jews and Greeks that Jesus was the Christ (Acts 18:4-5) and it was not until they opposed him and blasphemed, that he turned to the Gentiles in Corinth, and spoke to them directly. The Lord Himself appeared to Paul in a vision at Corinth, to encourage and reassure him, telling Paul that He had - 'much people in that city'.(Acts 18:8-9).

What universal law of marriage are you referring to, E.T.W.? The Gentile had never been under the law of Sinai, that they should need instruction regarding it, had they?

* You ask me what the point of my question was? I simply wanted to understand what it meant: I have no personal reason for asking.
* Thank you for taking the time to consider this, and to make a response.

In Christ Jesus
Chris
Universal law of Marriage under the one true God. When one in a union becomes a convert to the faith in Christ, it is suggested he remain with the non believing spouse. The believer is redeemed and therefore sanctifies the union under the Spirit of God who instituted the true union of marriage. They may NOT have a wedding under the law of God per-say, but through the believer are sanctified in Spirit under the law of marriage instituted by THE ONE TRUE GOD.
 

charity

Well-Known Member
Nov 26, 2017
3,234
3,192
113
75
UK
Faith
Christian
Country
United Kingdom
Universal law of Marriage under the one true God. When one in a union becomes a convert to the faith in Christ, it is suggested he remain with the non believing spouse. The believer is redeemed and therefore sanctifies the union under the Spirit of God who instituted the true union of marriage. They may NOT have a wedding under the law of God per-say, but through the believer are sanctified in Spirit under the law of marriage instituted by THE ONE TRUE GOD.
@Hello again, @EndTimeWine,

I have not heard of a universal law of marriage: but my mind turns to Gen 2:24:-

'Therefore, a man shall leave his father and his mother,
and shall cleave to his wife and they shall become one flesh.'

This is the only verse that comes close to being a law of marriage, as far as I can see.
Thank you for your time, E.T.W., but, I fear that we are not on the same wavelength here.

In Christ Jesus
Chris




 
Last edited: