God was manifest in the flesh

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ByGraceThroughFaith

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“14 These things write I unto thee, hoping to come unto thee shortly: 15 But if I tarry long, that thou mayest know how thou oughtest to behave thyself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth. 16 And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory.” (1 Timothy 3)

Paul writes, “without controversy”, but since the Revised Version in 1881 removed the reading, “θ̅Ο̅”, and substituted it with, “OC”, it has become a major Controversy! These are the contracted forms of the Greek words, “θεὸς” and “ὃς”, in English, God and who. The English reading as found in Versions like NIV, “He Who”, is not correct, as there it no “He” in the Greek.

Before looking at the external textual evidence of the Greek manuscripts and Church Fathers, etc, the internal Greek grammar is an important place to start. With the reading “θεὸς”, which is without any doubt, the original the Apostle Paul wrote, there are no problems with the Greek grammar. However, when we read the corrupted reading, “ὃς”, we do have a grammatical problem. “ὃς” is a relative, and must have an antecedent, to agree with. But there is no antecedent in the masculine gender, for it to agree with! Interestingly, of the Latin Church Fathers who do quote this passage, they all use “ὅ” (which), which is the neuter relative, which does agree grammatically with, “τὸ μυστήριον”, which is also neuter. This difficulty in the grammar, is also admitted to by Dr Charles Ellicott, who was the chairman of the committee, for the 1881 Version:

“Recent investigations have shown, however, beyond controversy that the oldest MSS., with scarcely an exception, contain the more difficult reading, ΘC (“He who”). The Greek pronoun thus rendered is simply a relative to an omitted but easily-inferred antecedent—viz., Christ. Possibly the difficulty in the construction is due to the fact of the whole verse being a fragment of an ancient Christian hymn, embodying a confession of faith” (commentary on 1 Timothy)

Firstly, why would Paul “omit” antecedent? Secondly, if, as Dr Ellicott suggests, that it is “Christ”, then why did not Paul simply say so? Thirdly, to try to solve this difficulty, we have yet more speculation, that these words were from a hymn, which Paul used. Again, without any evidence!

When we restore the original reading “θεὸς”, God is the subject, and there is no problem with any grammar or anything, except with those who have a difficulty with accepting that Jesus Christ is called GOD, which also seems to trouble some who call themselves “Evangelicals”!

The testimony of the Greek manuscripts, dates only from the 4th century AD, which is the Codex Sinaiticus. The reading in this Mss is ὃς. The Codex Alexandrinus, which is the 5th century, is often claimed to also read ὃς. However, over 30 years ago, I personally examined this original Mss in London, with the aid of a powerful microscope, and have no doubt that it read originally θεὸς. This Mss was first collated by Patrick Young between 1628-1652, who said that it clearly read θεὸς. Just a few years later, in 1657, when Brian Walton published his Greek New Testament, he also read θεὸς.

The oldest Version on the New Testament, is the Old Latin, which is from the 2nd century, reads ὅ (which), as do the Latin Church Fathers.

By far the strongest, and oldest evidence, is from the quotations made by the Greek Church Fathers, who clearly read θεὸς.

As early as Ignatius, Bishop of Antioch (AD 35-107), the reading θεὸς was the original in 1 Timothy 3:16. In at least 2 places in his Letter to the Ephesians, he writes: “God come in the flesh” (εν σαρκι γενομενοϛ Θεοϛ; Loeb Classical Library, The Apostolic Fathers, Vol. 1, chapter 7, pp. 226, 227); and in chapter 19, “God became manifest in a human way” (Θεου ανθρωπινωϛ ϕανερουμενου, ibid, pp. 238, 239). Clearly references to 1 Timothy 3:16. In chapter 1 of this Letter, Ignatius writes, "εν αιματι Θεου", (by the blood of God). This can only have been a reference to Acts 20:28, “Church of God, which He purchased by His own blood”.

In the next century, we have the theologian Hippolytus (170-236), in his work against the heretic, Noetus, write:

“And even as He was preached then, in the same manner also did He come and manifest Himself, being by the Virgin and the Holy Spirit made a new man; for in that He had the heavenly (nature) of the Father, as the Word and the earthly (nature), as taking to Himself the flesh from the old Adam by the medium of the Virgin, He now, coming forth into the world, was manifested as God in a body, coming forth too as a perfect man. For it was not in mere appearance or by conversion, but in truth, that He became man.” (ANF05. Fathers of the Third Century, sec, 17)

Here there are a number of Bible verses referred to. “by the Virgin and the Holy Spirit”, from Luke 1:35. “as the Word”, from John 1:1. “taking to Himself the flesh from the old Adam”, from 1 Corinthians 15:45-48. “was manifested as God in a body”, from 1 Timothy 3:16. “not in mere appearance or by conversion, but in truth, that He became man”, from 1 John 4:3; 2 John 7.

Not only do we have the early testimony of Ignatius, and Hippolytus, for the reading "Θεοϛ", (a) Gregory Thaumaturgus (213-270); (b) Didymus (313-398); (c) Gregory of Nyssa (330-395), who quotes this text 22 times with Θεοϛ!; (d) Chrysostom (347-407); (e) Cyril Alex. (died 444); (f) Theodoret (393-458); (g) Apollinarius (310-390, heretic!). Here, we have the testimony of writers (all Greek) from the first, to the fifth century, who found Θεοϛ in their copies of 1 Timothy 3:16! The heretic Origen (185-254), who taught that Jesus Christ was a created being, is the earliest quote of ὃς, though in a Latin translation of his work.

The Greek New Testaments of Erasmus (1519); Robert Estienne (1550); Theodore Beza (1598); Elzevir (1624); Johann Jakob Wettstein (1751-52); John Mill (1814) read Θεοϛ. As do William Tyndale (1534); Coverdale (1535); Matthew's (1537); Great Bible (1539); Bishops Bible (1568); Geneva Bible (1560) King James (1611). Wycliffe (1382), followed the Latin Vulgate, and reads, “that thing that”. Between 1775-7, the German scholar, Johann Griesbach, published his critical Greek New Testament, which was against the Textus Receptus. He adopted the reading ὃς, which is the first Greek NT to use this reading. Before this time, two other Germans, Martin Luther (1545), and Johann Albrecht Bengel (1742), read, “Gott”(God).

On the committee of the 1881 Revised Version, was a Dr G Vance Smith, who was minister of S. Saviour's Gate Chapel, York. Not only did he deny the Deity of the Lord Jesus Christ, but also the Inspiration of Holy Scriptures. Further, on the reading Θεοϛ, in 1 Timothy 3:16, he wrote:

“The old reading is pronounced untenable by the Revisers, as it has long been known to be by all careful students of the New Testament.... It is in truth another example of the facility with which ancient copiers could introduce the word God into their manuscripts,—a reading which was the natural result of the growing tendency in early Christian times ... to look upon the humble Teacher as the incarnate Word, and therefore as ‘God manifested in the flesh’ ” (as quoted by John Burgon in is work, The Revision Revised)

When we, who claim to be Bible-believing Evangelicals, allow workers of the enemy of the Truth of Scripture, to be involved in translating, we can expect that the devil will have his way to some extent. The statement of Dr Vance Smith on the Deity of Jesus Christ, shows his complete disregard to what the Bible actually teaches.
 
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Matthias

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“Undeniably great is the mystery of devotion,

Who was manifested in the flesh,
vindicated in the spirit,
seen by angels,
proclaimed to the Gentiles,
believed in throughout the world,
taken up in glory.”

(NABRE)

Footnotes

“a. 3:16 Who: the reference is to Christ, who is himself ‘the mystery of our devotion.’ Some predominantly Western manuscripts read ‘which,’ harmonizing the gender of the pronoun with that of the Greek word mystery; many later (eighth/ninth century on), predominantly Byzantine manuscripts read ‘God,’ possibly for theological reasons.”

Bible Gateway passage: 1 Timothy 3:16 - New American Bible (Revised Edition)

NABRE is a Catholic translation of the Bible.
 
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tigger 2

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“Undeniably great is the mystery of devotion,

Who was manifested in the flesh,
vindicated in the spirit,
seen by angels,
proclaimed to the Gentiles,
believed in throughout the world,
taken up in glory.”

(NABRE)

Footnotes

“a. 3:16 Who: the reference is to Christ, who is himself ‘the mystery of our devotion.’ Some predominantly Western manuscripts read ‘which,’ harmonizing the gender of the pronoun with that of the Greek word mystery; many later (eighth/ninth century on), predominantly Byzantine manuscripts read ‘God,’ possibly for theological reasons.”

Bible Gateway passage: 1 Timothy 3:16 - New American Bible (Revised Edition)

NABRE is a Catholic translation of the Bible.

.......................................................................

1 Tim. 3:16 (“God was manifest in the flesh”)

As this is translated in the KJV it makes Paul say that Jesus is God “manifest in the flesh.”

Although the KJV translates 1 Tim. 3:16 with “God” as above, nearly all other translations today use a word which refers, not to God, but to Jesus: “he(NIV; RSV; NRSV; JB; NJB; REB; NAB [‘70]; AT; GNB; CBW; and Beck’s translation), “he who(ASV; NASB; NEB; MLB; BBE; Phillips; and Moffatt), “who,” or “which.” Even the equally old Douay version has “which was manifested in the flesh.” All the very best modern NT texts by trinitarian scholars (including Westcott and Hort, Nestle, and the text by the United Bible Societies) have the NT Greek word ὃς (“who”) here instead of θεὸς (“God”). Why do the very best trinitarian scholars support this NON-trinitarian translation of 1 Tim. 3:16?[1]

Noted Bible scholar Dr. Frederick C. Grant writes:

“A capital example [of NT manuscript changes] is found in 1 Timothy 3:16, where ‘OS’ (OC or ὃς, ‘who’) was later taken for theta sigma with a bar above, which stood for theos (θεὸς, ‘god’). Since the new reading suited …. the orthodox doctrine of the church [trinitarian, at this later date], it got into many of the later manuscripts ….” – p. 656, Encyclopedia Americana, vol. 3, 1957 ed. (This same statement by Dr. Grant was still to be found in the latest Encyclopedia Americana that I examined – the 1990 ed., pp. 696-698, vol. 3.)

A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament by the United Bible Societies (1971 ed.) tells why the trinitarian UBS Committee chose ὃς [‘who’ or ‘he who’] as the original reading in their NT text for this verse:

“it is supported by the earliest and best uncials.” And, “Thus, no uncial (in the first hand [by the ORIGINAL writer]) earlier than the eighth or ninth century supports θεὸς [“God”]; all ancient versions presuppose ὃς [or OC, “who” - masc.] or [“which” - neut.]; and no patristic writer prior to the last third of the fourth century [ca. 370 A.D.] testifies to the reading θεὸς. The reading θεὸς arose either (a) accidentally, through the misreading of OC as ΘC, or (b) deliberately....” - p. 641.

In actuality it appears to be a combination of both (with the emphasis on the latter). You see, the word ὃς was written in the most ancient manuscripts as OC (“C” being a common form for the ancient Greek letter “S” at that time). Most often at this time the word for God (θεὸς) was written in abbreviated form as ΘC. However, to show that it was an abbreviated form, a straight line, or bar, was always drawn above ΘC. So no copyist should have mistaken ὃς (or OC) for ΘC, in spite of their similarities, simply because of the prominent bar which appeared over the one and not over the other.

What may have happened was discovered by John J. Wetstein in 1714. As he was carefully examining one of the oldest NT manuscripts then known (the Alexandrine Manuscript in London) he noticed at 1 Tim. 3:16 that the word originally written there was OC but that a horizontal stroke from one of the words written on the other side of the manuscript showed through very faintly in the middle of the O. This still would not qualify as an abbreviation for θεὸς, of course, but Wetstein discovered that some person at a much later date and in a different style from the original writer had deliberately added a bar above the original word! Anyone copying from this manuscript after it had been deliberately changed would be likely to incorporate the counterfeit ΘC [with bar above it] into his new copy (especially since it reflected his own trinitarian views)!

Of course, since Wetstein’s day many more ancient NT manuscripts have been discovered and none of them before the eighth century A.D. have been found with ΘC (“God”) at this verse!

Trinitarian scholar Murray J. Harris also concludes:

“The strength of the external evidence favoring OC [‘who’], along with considerations of transcriptional and intrinsic probability, have prompted textual critics virtually unanimously to regard OC as the original text, a judgment reflected in NA(26) [Nestle-Aland text] and UBS (1,2,3) [United Bible Societies text] (with a ‘B’ rating) [also the Westcott & Hort text]. Accordingly, 1 Tim 3:16 is not an instance of the Christological [‘Jesus is God’] use of θεὸς.” - Jesus as God, p. 268, Baker Book House, 1992.

And famed trinitarian (Southern Baptist) NT Greek scholar A. T. Robertson wrote about this scripture:

He who (hos [or OC in the original text]). The correct text, not theos (God) the reading of the Textus Receptus ... nor ho (neuter relative [pronoun]), agreeing with [the neuter] musterion [‘mystery’] the reading of Western documents.” - p. 577, Vol. 4, Word Pictures in the New Testament, Broadman Press.

And even trinitarian NT Greek scholar, Daniel B. Wallace uses the relative pronoun ὃς (‘who’) in this scripture and tells us:

“The textual variant θεὸς [‘god’] in the place of ὃς [‘who’ or ‘he who’] has been adamantly defended by some scholars, particularly those of the ‘majority text’ school. Not only is such a reading poorly attested [2], but the syntactical argument that ‘mystery’ (μυστήριον) being a neuter noun, cannot be followed by the masculine pronoun (ὃς) is entirely without weight. As attractive theologically [for trinitarians, of course] as the reading θεὸς may be, it is spurious. To reject it is not to deny the deity of Christ, of course; it is just to deny any explicit reference in this text.” [italicized emphasis is by Wallace]. - pp. 341-342, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, Zondervan, 1996.

The correct rendering of 1 Tim. 3:16, then, is: “He who was revealed in the flesh ….” - NASB. Cf. ASV; RSV; NRSV; NAB; JB; NJB; NIV; NEB; REB; ESV; Douay-Rheims; TEV; CEV; BBE; NLV; God’s Word; New Century Version; Holman NT; ISV NT; Lexham English Bible; The Message; Weymouth; Moffatt; etc.

Even if we were to insist that those later manuscripts that used theos were, somehow, correct, we would have to recognize that it is the anarthrous (without the definite article) theos which we find. This is rarely, if ever, the form used for the only true God (when the known exceptions are taken into account - see MARTIN study). Instead, it either points to the probability that it is a corrupted OC (which of course would not have the article in the first place), or, less probable, but still possible, that Christ is being called “a god.”


Footnotes:

1. Some trinitarian paraphrase Bibles are even more certain and clear:

“He (Christ) was shown to us in a human body” - ETRV.

Christ appeared in human form” - Weymouth.

Christ came to earth as a man” - NLV.

Christ, who came to earth as a man” - LB.

Here is the great mystery of our religion:
Christ came as a human.” – CEV.


2. Wallace’s footnote says: “In particular, it is impossible to explain the Latin reading of a neuter R[elative] P[ronoun] as deriving from θεὸς, showing that ὃς was quite early. Not one firsthand of any Greek witnesses prior to the 8th century read θεὸς.”
 

Wrangler

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1 Tim. 3:16 (“God was manifest in the flesh”)

As this is translated in the KJV it makes Paul say that Jesus is God “manifest in the flesh.”

Although the KJV translates 1 Tim. 3:16 with “God” as above, nearly all other translations today use a word which refers, not to God, but to Jesus: “he(NIV; RSV; NRSV; JB; NJB; REB; NAB [‘70]; AT; GNB; CBW; and Beck’s translation), “he who(ASV; NASB; NEB; MLB; BBE; Phillips; and Moffatt), “who,” or “which.” Even the equally old Douay version has “which was manifested in the flesh.” All the very best modern NT texts by trinitarian scholars (including Westcott and Hort, Nestle, and the text by the United Bible Societies) have the NT Greek word ὃς (“who”) here instead of θεὸς (“God”). Why do the very best trinitarian scholars support this NON-trinitarian translation of 1 Tim. 3:16?

Great analysis, as always tigger! The simple answer is trinitarians today have to butcher Scripture, definitions, logic and normal language usage to 'support' their inherently contradictory doctrine.

A plain reading of Deut 18:15-18 explains the prophecy that Jesus fulfilled. God's word was manifest in the flesh - as is done with all prophets.
 
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Pearl

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Do you know arguing with those who believe Jesus is not God is a complete waste of time, Those like me who know Jesus is God do not need to convince anybody because we know the truth. And the ones who don't believe, well we are wasting our pearls on them. They have their logic but we have our faith.
 
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tigger 2

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Only a relative few have understood the scriptures as identifying the one true God as the Father alone (John 17:1, 3). The Many, by far, have been taught (and will not change) by the teachings of a Church (beginning in 325 A.D.).

Matt. 7:13, 14; 21-23.
 
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Matthias

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NET trinitarian commentary on 1 Timothy 3:16 - “God” here is “special pleading”. (See the link.)

1 Timothy 3

In regard to 1 Timothy 3:16, the Catholic scholar Raymond E. Brown had the following to say in the section of his book “II. TEXTS WHERE THE USE OF ‘GOD’ FOR JESUS IS DUBIOUS” subtitled “A. Passages with textual variants” -

”We shall discuss only those which we think have some merit. We shall ignore, for instance, 1 Tim 3:16, where some later witnesses have God manifested in the flesh. The attestation for such a reading is not strong enough to warrant serious consideration.”

(Jesus God And Man, fn 17, p. 10)

Dr. Brown, considered one of the finest trinitarian scholars in the world by his Catholic and Protestant peers, examined the same evidence the trinitarian scholars who prepared the NET commentary notes did and deemed the question of whether or not the text should be rendered “God” not even worthy of warranting serious consideration.
 
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farouk

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Do you know arguing with those who believe Jesus is not God is a complete waste of time, Those like me who know Jesus is God do not need to convince anybody because we know the truth. And the ones who don't believe, well we are wasting our pearls on them. They have their logic but we have our faith.
@Pearl Scripture is full of His deity also, most gloriously......
 
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stephen64

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Only a relative few have understood the scriptures as identifying the one true God as the Father alone (John 17:1, 3). The Many, by far, have been taught (and will not change) by the teachings of a Church (beginning in 325 A.D.).

Matt. 7:13, 14; 21-23.
I would have to say it became a theologically driven church, by scholars and theologians who relied on the academic mind to learn of the spiritual, not a Holy Spirit led church
 

Webers_Home

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.
Heb 1:3a …The Son is the radiance of God's glory and the exact
representation of His being,

That verse depicts the Son as a characterization; viz: a tangible
representation of something and/or someone intangible.

The ramifications of that verse are as disturbing as they are astounding
because it means that whenever, wherever, and however the Supreme
Being interacted with human life, He did so via the Son rather than Himself
in person.

"No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son-- who is in the
bosom of the Father --he has declared Him." (John 1:18)

"You have neither heard His voice at any time, nor seen His form." (John
5:37)

Compare that to this:

"Then went up Moses, and Aaron, Nadab, and Abihu, and seventy of the
elders of Israel: and they saw the God of Israel: and there was under His
feet as it were a paved work of a sapphire stone, and as it were the body of
heaven in his clearness. And upon the nobles of the children of Israel He laid
not His hand: also they saw God, and did eat and drink." (Ex 24:9-11)

They did see God, yes, but not God in person, no: instead; they saw a
characterization of God, viz: a tangible representation of someone
intangible-- an avatar, so to speak.

Most of us have a pretty vague notion of what the Supreme Being might be
like in person. But we needn't guess because quite a bit about Him in person
is in the person of His son.

"If you really knew me, you would know my Father as well. From now on,
you do know him and have seen him. Philip said: Lord, show us the Father
and that will be enough for us. Jesus answered: Don't you know me, Philip,
even after I have been among you such a long time? Anyone who has seen
me has seen the Father. How can you say: Show us the Father?" (John
14:7-9)

A living characterization of the supreme being had been right under Philip's
nose all along for just about three years and he didn't even know it. But we
really should cut Philip some slack because the rest of us really have no
better perception of God on our own than he did.

The shadow of a tree is something like Adam's likeness of God. On the
ground, a tree's shadow is little more than an irregular puddle of contrasts,
just a patchy smirch. But when we look up, oh! the tree comes alive with
color and detail. We can see how tall it is, the features of the bark, and the
shape and texture of the leaves and how they are arranged on the branches.
And then we notice that the tree is an ecosystem in itself; a habitat for
insects and other creatures invisible in the tree's shadow. The Son is like
that. When we look at ourselves all we see is God's shadow; whereas by
means of the Son, we can view God in detail.
_
 

GEN2REV

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.......................................................................

1 Tim. 3:16 (“God was manifest in the flesh”)

As this is translated in the KJV it makes Paul say that Jesus is God “manifest in the flesh.”

Although the KJV translates 1 Tim. 3:16 with “God” as above, nearly all other translations today use a word which refers, not to God, but to Jesus: “he(NIV; RSV; NRSV; JB; NJB; REB; NAB [‘70]; AT; GNB; CBW; and Beck’s translation), “he who(ASV; NASB; NEB; MLB; BBE; Phillips; and Moffatt), “who,” or “which.” Even the equally old Douay version has “which was manifested in the flesh.” All the very best modern NT texts by trinitarian scholars (including Westcott and Hort, Nestle, and the text by the United Bible Societies) have the NT Greek word ὃς (“who”) here instead of θεὸς (“God”). Why do the very best trinitarian scholars support this NON-trinitarian translation of 1 Tim. 3:16?[1]

Noted Bible scholar Dr. Frederick C. Grant writes:

“A capital example [of NT manuscript changes] is found in 1 Timothy 3:16, where ‘OS’ (OC or ὃς, ‘who’) was later taken for theta sigma with a bar above, which stood for theos (θεὸς, ‘god’). Since the new reading suited …. the orthodox doctrine of the church [trinitarian, at this later date], it got into many of the later manuscripts ….” – p. 656, Encyclopedia Americana, vol. 3, 1957 ed. (This same statement by Dr. Grant was still to be found in the latest Encyclopedia Americana that I examined – the 1990 ed., pp. 696-698, vol. 3.)

A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament by the United Bible Societies (1971 ed.) tells why the trinitarian UBS Committee chose ὃς [‘who’ or ‘he who’] as the original reading in their NT text for this verse:

“it is supported by the earliest and best uncials.” And, “Thus, no uncial (in the first hand [by the ORIGINAL writer]) earlier than the eighth or ninth century supports θεὸς [“God”]; all ancient versions presuppose ὃς [or OC, “who” - masc.] or [“which” - neut.]; and no patristic writer prior to the last third of the fourth century [ca. 370 A.D.] testifies to the reading θεὸς. The reading θεὸς arose either (a) accidentally, through the misreading of OC as ΘC, or (b) deliberately....” - p. 641.

In actuality it appears to be a combination of both (with the emphasis on the latter). You see, the word ὃς was written in the most ancient manuscripts as OC (“C” being a common form for the ancient Greek letter “S” at that time). Most often at this time the word for God (θεὸς) was written in abbreviated form as ΘC. However, to show that it was an abbreviated form, a straight line, or bar, was always drawn above ΘC. So no copyist should have mistaken ὃς (or OC) for ΘC, in spite of their similarities, simply because of the prominent bar which appeared over the one and not over the other.

What may have happened was discovered by John J. Wetstein in 1714. As he was carefully examining one of the oldest NT manuscripts then known (the Alexandrine Manuscript in London) he noticed at 1 Tim. 3:16 that the word originally written there was OC but that a horizontal stroke from one of the words written on the other side of the manuscript showed through very faintly in the middle of the O. This still would not qualify as an abbreviation for θεὸς, of course, but Wetstein discovered that some person at a much later date and in a different style from the original writer had deliberately added a bar above the original word! Anyone copying from this manuscript after it had been deliberately changed would be likely to incorporate the counterfeit ΘC [with bar above it] into his new copy (especially since it reflected his own trinitarian views)!

Of course, since Wetstein’s day many more ancient NT manuscripts have been discovered and none of them before the eighth century A.D. have been found with ΘC (“God”) at this verse!

Trinitarian scholar Murray J. Harris also concludes:

“The strength of the external evidence favoring OC [‘who’], along with considerations of transcriptional and intrinsic probability, have prompted textual critics virtually unanimously to regard OC as the original text, a judgment reflected in NA(26) [Nestle-Aland text] and UBS (1,2,3) [United Bible Societies text] (with a ‘B’ rating) [also the Westcott & Hort text]. Accordingly, 1 Tim 3:16 is not an instance of the Christological [‘Jesus is God’] use of θεὸς.” - Jesus as God, p. 268, Baker Book House, 1992.

And famed trinitarian (Southern Baptist) NT Greek scholar A. T. Robertson wrote about this scripture:

He who (hos [or OC in the original text]). The correct text, not theos (God) the reading of the Textus Receptus ... nor ho (neuter relative [pronoun]), agreeing with [the neuter] musterion [‘mystery’] the reading of Western documents.” - p. 577, Vol. 4, Word Pictures in the New Testament, Broadman Press.

And even trinitarian NT Greek scholar, Daniel B. Wallace uses the relative pronoun ὃς (‘who’) in this scripture and tells us:

“The textual variant θεὸς [‘god’] in the place of ὃς [‘who’ or ‘he who’] has been adamantly defended by some scholars, particularly those of the ‘majority text’ school. Not only is such a reading poorly attested [2], but the syntactical argument that ‘mystery’ (μυστήριον) being a neuter noun, cannot be followed by the masculine pronoun (ὃς) is entirely without weight. As attractive theologically [for trinitarians, of course] as the reading θεὸς may be, it is spurious. To reject it is not to deny the deity of Christ, of course; it is just to deny any explicit reference in this text.” [italicized emphasis is by Wallace]. - pp. 341-342, Greek Grammar Beyond the Basics, Zondervan, 1996.

The correct rendering of 1 Tim. 3:16, then, is: “He who was revealed in the flesh ….” - NASB. Cf. ASV; RSV; NRSV; NAB; JB; NJB; NIV; NEB; REB; ESV; Douay-Rheims; TEV; CEV; BBE; NLV; God’s Word; New Century Version; Holman NT; ISV NT; Lexham English Bible; The Message; Weymouth; Moffatt; etc.

Even if we were to insist that those later manuscripts that used theos were, somehow, correct, we would have to recognize that it is the anarthrous (without the definite article) theos which we find. This is rarely, if ever, the form used for the only true God (when the known exceptions are taken into account - see MARTIN study). Instead, it either points to the probability that it is a corrupted OC (which of course would not have the article in the first place), or, less probable, but still possible, that Christ is being called “a god.”


Footnotes:

1. Some trinitarian paraphrase Bibles are even more certain and clear:

“He (Christ) was shown to us in a human body” - ETRV.

Christ appeared in human form” - Weymouth.

Christ came to earth as a man” - NLV.

Christ, who came to earth as a man” - LB.

Here is the great mystery of our religion:
Christ came as a human.” – CEV.


2. Wallace’s footnote says: “In particular, it is impossible to explain the Latin reading of a neuter R[elative] P[ronoun] as deriving from θεὸς, showing that ὃς was quite early. Not one firsthand of any Greek witnesses prior to the 8th century read θεὸς.”
So the newest, latest, versions of the Bible are much more accurate than the oldest, most original versions then?
 

GEN2REV

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A plain reading of Deut 18:15-18 explains the prophecy that Jesus fulfilled. God's word was manifest in the flesh - as is done with all prophets.
And, ironically to your use of this fact to support the opposite, Jesus was personally involved with all the prophets.
Luke 24:27
 

GEN2REV

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I would have to say it became a theologically driven church, by scholars and theologians who relied on the academic mind to learn of the spiritual, not a Holy Spirit led church
What is your definition of the Holy Spirit?
 

GEN2REV

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The only way to come to the conclusions of the naysayers in this thread is to have zero faith that the Bible is the inspired Word of God.

Without that prerequisite, one's opinion of the Bible is meaningless. These "Bible experts" are everywhere today teaching the masses, so as to save them from the ignorance of old, that the Bible is nothing but old literature by uneducated ancient men who knew very little about what they were writing about. And these experts know so much more today than any of those old idiots who wrote the Bible.

It is with awe and great reverence that I behold their level of intelligence and education.

They are a law unto themselves.
 

tigger 2

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So the newest, latest, versions of the Bible are much more accurate than the oldest, most original versions then?
..............................
Yes. The earliest Greek NT manuscripts are more accurate than the latest such mss. Therefore, since the earliest English translators did not have these much older manuscripts, their translations are not as accurate as the latest Bible translations which were translated from a better text based on older mss.